Free ACCA Financial Management Practice Questions & Answers
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Question 241
In the context of business valuation, what is 'goodwill'?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The value attributed to intangible factors (brand, customer relationships, management quality, intellectual property) that cause a business to be worth more than the fair value of its individual net assets
Explanation: Goodwill = Purchase price paid for a business − Fair value of net assets acquired. It represents the 'premium' for intangibles (brand, customer base, workforce, know-how). A is net assets; C is profit; D is partly right but D only applies to listed companies.
Question 242
What is the 'dividend valuation model' (DVM) for a company with no dividend growth?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — P = D / ke (the share price equals the perpetuity value of the constant dividend)
Explanation: For a no-growth dividend: P₀ = D₀ / ke (constant perpetuity). A inverts; C uses EPS not dividend; D is the growth model formula.
Question 243
A company estimates that a project's annual cash inflows could be $80,000 (pessimistic), $100,000 (most likely), or $130,000 (optimistic). This is an example of:
Explanation: This is scenario analysis — evaluating the project under three different scenarios. Sensitivity analysis (A) changes one variable at a time. Monte Carlo simulation (C, D) runs thousands of iterations. B correctly identifies the three-scenario approach.
Question 244
Which of the following is the CORRECT formula for the 'adjusted present value' (APV)?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — APV = Base-case NPV (discounted at Keu, the ungeared cost of equity) + PV of financing side effects (primarily the debt tax shield)
Explanation: APV separates investment and financing decisions: Base NPV (as if all-equity) + PV of tax shields (and other financing benefits like issue costs, subsidised debt). A, C and D are wrong formulas.
Question 245
What is 'inflation risk' in the context of bonds and long-term investments?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The risk that unexpected increases in inflation erode the real (purchasing power adjusted) value of future cash flows, reducing the real return on fixed-income investments
Explanation: Inflation risk: fixed coupon payments and principal repayments on bonds are eroded in real terms if inflation rises unexpectedly. Index-linked bonds mitigate this. A is credit risk; C is interest rate risk; D is FX risk.
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In NPV analysis, what is the correct treatment of 'residual value' (scrap value) at the end of a project?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Include it as a cash inflow in the final year of the project and discount it back to present value
Explanation: Residual/scrap value is a real cash inflow when the asset is sold at project end. It is included as a Year N cash flow and discounted. If there are tax implications (balancing allowance or charge), these must also be accounted for. A loses real value; C and D are incorrect.
Question 247
Which of the following is an example of a 'real option' embedded in an investment project?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The managerial flexibility to expand the project if early results are favourable, abandon it if results are poor, or delay the start — value not captured by standard NPV
Explanation: Real options: abandonment option, expansion option, timing/delay option. Standard NPV ignores managerial flexibility. The value of these options adds to NPV, especially for uncertain projects. A is a financial option; C and D are derivatives.
Question 248
What does 'enterprise value to EBITDA' (EV/EBITDA) measure?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The total value of the business (equity + debt) relative to its operating cash flow proxy (EBITDA) — a capital structure-neutral valuation multiple widely used in M&A
Explanation: EV/EBITDA is a valuation multiple comparing total business value to operating earnings before non-cash charges and capital structure effects. It is capital structure neutral (unlike P/E) and is widely used in M&A comparisons. A uses net profit; C and D are wrong.
Question 249
What is the 'cost of retained earnings' for a company?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The opportunity cost to shareholders of not receiving dividends — equal to the cost of equity (ke), since shareholders could have invested those funds elsewhere
Explanation: Retained earnings are not free: they represent funds that shareholders could have received as dividends and invested elsewhere. The cost = ke (the shareholder's required return). If the company reinvests at less than ke, value is destroyed. A is the most common misconception; C and D are wrong.
Question 250
In a DCF valuation, what is the most common reason that a company's intrinsic value (from DCF) differs from its market value?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — DCF is based on assumptions about future cash flows and discount rates that may differ from market consensus; markets also incorporate sentiment, liquidity, and information not fully captured in DCF models
Explanation: DCF gives an analyst's view based on specific assumptions. Market prices reflect collective investor expectations, which may differ. Neither is definitively 'correct' — they reflect different information and assumptions. A and C are wrong; D overstates the difference.
Question 251
What is the 'equivalent annual annuity' (EAA) formula?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — NPV ÷ Annuity factor for the project's life — converts NPV to an annual equivalent for comparing projects of different durations
Explanation: EAA = NPV ÷ Annuity factor (for the project life at the discount rate). By expressing each project's value as an annual equivalent, projects with different lives can be compared on the same basis. A is PI; C and D are wrong.
Question 252
What is the difference between 'accounting profit' and 'cash flow' in the context of a capital project?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Accounting profit deducts depreciation (a non-cash charge) and may include accruals; cash flow reflects actual cash in/out — NPV uses cash flows, not accounting profit, because cash is what creates and reflects value
Explanation: NPV is based on cash flows because: (1) cash flows are real and observable; (2) depreciation is a timing allocation, not a cash payment; (3) value is created by cash generation, not accounting constructs. A and C are wrong; D is debatable but D is not the key point here.
Question 253
Which of the following describes a 'merger' versus an 'acquisition' in corporate finance?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A merger involves two roughly equal companies combining to form a new entity; an acquisition involves one company (the acquirer) buying a controlling interest in another (the target)
Explanation: Merger: two companies combine, typically of similar size, creating a new entity or one absorbs the other by agreement. Acquisition: one company buys the target. A, C and D are oversimplifications or wrong.
Question 254
In sensitivity analysis, a 'sensitivity percentage' of 5% for selling price means:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The project's NPV will become zero if the selling price falls by 5% from its forecast level — a small margin of safety indicating selling price is a critical variable
Explanation: Low sensitivity % = small change needed to turn NPV negative = high risk for that variable = critical to monitor. A 5% margin of safety for price is very small — the variable is highly sensitive. A and C reverse the interpretation; D is wrong.
Question 255
What is the impact on NPV of receiving cash inflows EARLIER rather than later?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Earlier inflows increase NPV because their discount factors are closer to 1 — they are discounted less
Explanation: Earlier cash flows have higher present value (less discounting). Bringing a $100,000 cash flow from Year 3 to Year 1 significantly increases NPV. A reverses the logic; C and D are incorrect.
Question 256
A project requires an initial investment of $1,000,000. Expected annual cash flows after tax are $200,000 for 8 years. Using an 8-year annuity factor at 10% of 5.335, what is the NPV?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — $67,000
Explanation: NPV = ($200,000 × 5.335) − $1,000,000 = $1,067,000 − $1,000,000 = $67,000. B ignores discounting; C is the investment only; D is wrong.
Question 257
What is the meaning of a 'positive NPV' of $50,000?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Accepting the project is expected to increase the present value of the company (and thus shareholder wealth) by $50,000, after earning the required rate of return
Explanation: NPV of $50,000: the project creates $50,000 of value above the minimum required return — shareholders are $50,000 better off (in PV terms) by accepting it. A confuses cash and profit; C and D are wrong interpretations.
Question 258
Which of the following BEST describes the term 'capital structure'?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The mix of long-term debt and equity used to finance a company's assets
Explanation: Capital structure refers to how a company finances its long-term assets — the proportions of equity (ordinary shares, retained earnings) and debt (bonds, loans) in its total capital. A, C and D are incorrect definitions.
Question 259
What is the main advantage of debt financing (borrowing) over equity financing?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Interest on debt is tax-deductible, creating a 'tax shield' that reduces the effective cost of debt
Explanation: The key advantage of debt: interest is deductible for tax purposes, reducing the after-tax cost of debt (kd = pre-tax rate × (1−T)). Equity dividends are NOT tax-deductible. A overstates; C is wrong (debt holders have no votes); D is wrong (debt must be repaid regardless of profitability).
Question 260
What does the 'gearing ratio' measure?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The proportion of a company's capital that is financed by debt relative to equity (or total capital)
Explanation: Gearing (leverage) = Debt ÷ Equity (or Debt ÷ Total capital). High gearing means more fixed-interest debt, amplifying both returns and risk. A, C and D are different measures.
Question 261
What is a 'dividend'?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A cash payment made to shareholders from the company's after-tax profits, representing a return on their investment
Explanation: A dividend is a distribution of after-tax profit to shareholders. A is pre-tax profit; C is interest (a return to debt holders); D is profit retained within the company (not distributed).
Question 262
Which of the following is a source of LONG-TERM finance for a company?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Ordinary share issue
Explanation: Ordinary shares are a permanent (long-term) source of equity finance. A (overdraft) and C (trade credit) are short-term; D (invoice discounting) is short-term working capital finance.
Question 263
What is the main risk to shareholders from HIGH levels of gearing?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — In times of poor trading, the fixed interest payments on debt must still be made, increasing the risk of financial distress or insolvency
Explanation: High gearing amplifies financial risk: if profits fall, the fixed interest burden remains, increasing the risk of default. A is wrong; C is incorrect (gearing doesn't affect voting); D is not always true.
Question 264
Which of the following is a characteristic of an 'ordinary share'?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Residual claim on assets, variable dividends at directors' discretion, and full voting rights
Explanation: Ordinary (common) shares: no guaranteed dividend; dividend varies with profits; full voting rights; last claim on assets in liquidation (after debt and preference shares). A and D describe preference shares; C is not a characteristic of any equity share.
Question 265
What is a 'preference share'?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A share that carries a fixed dividend, paid before ordinary dividends, and has priority over ordinary shares in a liquidation
Explanation: Preference shares: fixed dividend (paid first), priority on liquidation over ordinary shares. Usually non-voting or limited voting. A is a 'weighted' voting share; C is a warrant or option; D is an employee share scheme.
Question 266
What is a 'bond' (debenture or loan stock)?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A debt instrument where the company borrows money from investors and pays a fixed interest rate, with the principal repaid at maturity
Explanation: Bonds (debentures/loan notes) are long-term debt instruments: the company pays a coupon (interest) to bondholders and repays principal at maturity. A is equity; C and D are unrelated.
Question 267
What does 'financial risk' mean in the context of gearing?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The additional risk borne by shareholders due to the company's use of debt (fixed interest obligations that must be met before equity holders receive anything)
Explanation: Financial risk arises specifically from gearing — shareholders bear extra risk because debt holders are paid first (interest and capital repayment). A is investment risk; C is control risk; D is currency risk.
Question 268
What is the 'cost of equity' from the perspective of the company?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The minimum return required by shareholders to compensate them for the risk of investing in the company's equity — the opportunity cost of equity capital
Explanation: The cost of equity is the required return demanded by equity investors for the risk taken. It represents an opportunity cost — the return shareholders could earn on investments of equivalent risk. A is not right (shares pay dividends, not interest); C is only part of return (ignores capital gain); D is historical, not forward-looking.
Question 269
Which of the following is NOT a component of the cost of capital?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: D — Book value of assets
Explanation: The cost of capital (WACC) is composed of the costs of each source of long-term finance: equity, preference shares, and debt. Book value of assets (D) is not a cost component. A, B and C are all costs of finance.
Question 270
What does 'WACC' stand for?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Weighted Average Cost of Capital
Explanation: WACC = Weighted Average Cost of Capital — the average cost of all sources of long-term capital (debt and equity), weighted by their proportions in the capital structure. B, C and D are invented terms.
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