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Free ACCA Corporate and Business Law Practice Questions & Answers
398 exam-style Corporate and Business Law questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
100% free · No login to startQuestion 1
Which of the following best describes 'civil law'?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Rules that govern relationships between private individuals or organisations
Explanation: Civil law governs disputes between private parties (e.g. breach of contract). A describes criminal law; C and D are too narrow.
Question 2
What is the primary function of the doctrine of judicial precedent?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — To ensure courts follow earlier decisions on similar facts
Explanation: Judicial precedent means courts must follow earlier decisions of higher courts on the same legal point.
Question 3
Which term describes the part of a court judgment that creates binding precedent?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Ratio decidendi
Explanation: Ratio decidendi ('reason for the decision') is the binding part of a judgment. Obiter dicta are persuasive but not binding.
Question 4
What does 'obiter dicta' mean in the context of case law?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Remarks made by the judge that are not essential to the decision
Explanation: Obiter dicta are judicial remarks not central to the decision – persuasive but not binding.
Question 5
Which court sits at the apex of the English legal system?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — The Supreme Court
Explanation: The UK Supreme Court is the highest court; its decisions bind all lower courts.
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Question 6
Delegated legislation is best described as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Laws made by bodies to whom Parliament has granted law-making power
Explanation: Delegated (secondary) legislation is made under powers granted by a parent Act of Parliament.
Question 7
An 'offer' in contract law is best defined as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — A willingness to be legally bound on stated terms, communicated to the offeree
Explanation: An offer is a definite proposal to be bound on specific terms once accepted.
Question 8
An 'invitation to treat' differs from an offer because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — It invites the other party to make an offer rather than accepting it
Explanation: An invitation to treat invites others to make offers; the invitor can then accept or decline.
Question 9
Which of the following is required for a valid contract?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Agreement, consideration, capacity, and intention to create legal relations
Explanation: The four core elements are: agreement (offer + acceptance), consideration, capacity, and intention to create legal relations.
Question 10
What is 'consideration' in contract law?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Something of value given by each party in exchange for the other's promise
Explanation: Consideration is the 'price' of the contract – each party must give something of legal value.
Question 11
Which statement about consideration is correct?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Consideration must be sufficient but need not be adequate
Explanation: Courts do not question adequacy (commercial fairness) but consideration must be sufficient (legally recognised).
Question 12
The doctrine of privity of contract means:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Only parties to a contract can sue or be sued under it
Explanation: Privity means only parties to the contract can enforce it or be bound by it.
Question 13
Under the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999, a third party may enforce a contract term if:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — The contract expressly provides that they may do so, or the term purports to confer a benefit on them
Explanation: The 1999 Act allows enforcement by a third party in those two circumstances.
Question 14
Which of the following is NOT a valid method of terminating an offer?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: D — The offeror making the same offer to another party
Explanation: Making the same offer to another party does not automatically end the first offer. Rejection, revocation, and counter-offer all do terminate it.
Question 15
A 'condition' in a contract is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A central term whose breach entitles the innocent party to terminate the contract and claim damages
Explanation: A condition is a core term; breach allows termination and/or damages.
Question 16
A 'warranty' in a contract differs from a condition in that breach of a warranty:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Only gives rise to a claim for damages, not termination
Explanation: Breach of a warranty gives only damages; the contract continues.
Question 17
What is an exclusion clause?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A clause that attempts to limit or exclude one party's liability for breach
Explanation: An exclusion clause seeks to limit or exclude liability; subject to UCTA 1977 and CRA 2015.
Question 18
Under the Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977, a business-to-business exclusion clause for negligence causing personal injury is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Always void and of no legal effect
Explanation: UCTA 1977 makes it impossible to exclude liability for death or personal injury caused by negligence.
Question 19
Which of the following best describes the tort of negligence?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Careless conduct that breaches a duty of care and causes foreseeable loss
Explanation: Negligence requires: duty of care, breach, and damage caused by the breach.
Question 20
The 'neighbour principle' established in Donoghue v Stevenson (1932) holds that:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — You owe a duty of care to anyone who might foreseeably be affected by your acts or omissions
Explanation: Lord Atkin's principle: take care to avoid injuring those closely and directly affected by your conduct.
Question 21
Which THREE elements must be proved to succeed in a negligence claim?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Duty of care, breach, and damage
Explanation: All three – duty of care, breach, and resulting damage – must be established.
Question 22
The concept of 'vicarious liability' means:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — An employer can be held liable for torts committed by employees during the course of their employment
Explanation: Vicarious liability makes an employer responsible for an employee's wrongful acts done in the course of employment.
Question 23
In the context of negligence, 'remoteness of damage' means:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A defendant is not liable for damage that was not a reasonably foreseeable type of consequence
Explanation: The Wagon Mound test: defendant only liable for types of damage that were reasonably foreseeable.
Question 24
Which of the following is a valid defence to a negligence claim?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Volenti non fit injuria (the claimant willingly accepted the risk)
Explanation: Volenti is a complete defence where the claimant freely and voluntarily accepted the risk of harm.
Question 25
The tort of 'passing off' protects:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — A trader's goodwill and reputation from misrepresentation by another trader
Explanation: Passing off prevents a trader from misrepresenting their goods or services as those of another.
Question 26
Contributory negligence by the claimant results in:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A reduction in the damages awarded to reflect the claimant's share of responsibility
Explanation: Under the Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act 1945, damages are reduced by the claimant's proportion of fault.
Question 27
Which test determines whether a term is a condition or a warranty?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The parties' intentions at the time of contracting and the importance of the term to the contract as a whole
Explanation: Courts look primarily at the intention of the parties at contracting to classify a term.
Question 28
An 'innominate term' (intermediate term) is one where:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — The consequences of breach determine whether the innocent party can terminate or must accept damages only
Explanation: An innominate term (Hong Kong Fir): neither condition nor warranty; remedy depends on severity of breach.
Question 29
Misrepresentation makes a contract:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Voidable – the innocent party may rescind it
Explanation: Misrepresentation makes a contract voidable; the innocent party may rescind.
Question 30
Which type of misrepresentation gives the innocent party the right to rescind AND claim damages in the tort of deceit?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Fraudulent misrepresentation
Explanation: Fraudulent misrepresentation: deliberate or reckless lies – allows rescission and damages in deceit.
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