Question 361
Kupiec’s POF test evaluates:
A. Autocorrelation
B. Number of VaR exceptions
C. Volatility clustering
D. Correlation breakdown
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Number of VaR exceptions
Explanation: B correct: POF = proportion of failures test. Others wrong: Different diagnostics.
Question 362
A portfolio has 1‑day volatility 2%. Correlation between two assets is 0.5. If correlation rises to 0.8, portfolio volatility will:
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Stay constant
D. Become zero
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Increase
Explanation: B correct: Higher correlation → higher combined volatility. Others wrong: Misstate effect.
Question 363
ETF premium/discount is:
A. ETF return − index return
B. ETF price − NAV
C. ETF volatility − NAV volatility
D. ETF yield − index yield
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — ETF price − NAV
Explanation: B correct: Premium/discount = market price − NAV. Others wrong: Misdefine.
Question 364
In factor models, specific risk is:
A. Explained by factors
B. Unexplained by factors
C. Equal to factor variance
D. Equal to total variance
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Unexplained by factors
Explanation: B correct: Specific = idiosyncratic, not factor‑driven. Others wrong: Misdefine.
Question 365
A portfolio has factor loading 1.2 and factor variance 3%. Systematic variance contribution?
A. 2.16%
B. 3.6%
C. 4.32%
D. 5.0%
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 2.16%
Explanation: Contribution = β² × Var(f) = 1.44×0.03 = 0.0432 = 4.32% → C. Correct Answer (final): C Others wrong: Miscompute.
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Question 366
A portfolio has specific variance 2% and systematic variance 6%. Total variance?
A. 6%
B. 7%
C. 8%
D. 10%
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 8%
Explanation: Total = 6 + 2 = 8%. C correct, others wrong.
Question 367
A portfolio has 1‑day VaR = 2%. If volatility doubles, VaR becomes:
A. 2%
B. 3%
C. 4%
D. 8%
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 4%
Explanation: VaR ∝ volatility → doubling vol doubles VaR → 4%. C correct, others wrong.
Question 368
Capacity constraints in backtesting refer to:
A. Limits on data availability
B. Limits on how much capital a strategy can absorb
C. Limits on computing power
D. Limits on number of factors
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Limits on how much capital a strategy can absorb
Explanation: B correct: Capacity = how much AUM a strategy can handle before returns degrade. Others wrong: Misstate constraint.
Question 369
In mean‑variance optimization, adding a turnover constraint typically:
A. Expands the efficient frontier
B. Shrinks the efficient frontier
C. Has no effect
D. Eliminates diversification benefits
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Shrinks the efficient frontier
Explanation: B correct: Constraints reduce feasible set → lower efficiency. Others wrong: Misstate constraint effects.
Question 370
In Black–Litterman, the equilibrium returns Π are derived from:
A. Historical averages
B. CAPM betas
C. Reverse optimization
D. Analyst forecasts
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Reverse optimization
Explanation: C correct: Π = λΣw_mkt (reverse optimization). Others wrong: Not BL equilibrium method.
Question 371
A minimum‑variance portfolio with two assets has correlation = 1. The MVP weight becomes:
A. Undefined
B. 50/50
C. 100% in lower‑vol asset
D. 100% in higher‑vol asset
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 100% in lower‑vol asset
Explanation: C correct: Perfect correlation → choose lower‑vol asset. Others wrong: MVP is not diversified when ρ=1.
Question 372
A U.S. investor earns 4% in AUD. AUD depreciates 5%. USD return?
A. −1.0%
B. −1.2%
C. −1.8%
D. −2.0%
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — −1.8%
Explanation: (1.04)(0.95)−1 = 0.988−1 = −1.2% → closest = B. Correct Answer (final): B Others wrong: Off from multiplicative effect.
Question 373
A currency overlay program aims to:
A. Increase equity exposure
B. Manage currency risk separately from asset exposure
C. Increase bond duration
D. Reduce factor exposures
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Manage currency risk separately from asset exposure
Explanation: B correct: Overlay = separate currency management. Others wrong: Not currency overlay purpose.
Question 374
A portfolio has 1‑day VaR = 2%. Correlation between assets falls. VaR will:
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Stay constant
D. Become zero
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Decrease
Explanation: B correct: Lower correlation → lower volatility → lower VaR. Others wrong: Misstate correlation effect.
Question 375
Stress VaR is typically:
A. Lower than regular VaR
B. Equal to regular VaR
C. Higher than regular VaR
D. Unrelated to regular VaR
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Higher than regular VaR
Explanation: C correct: Stress parameters → higher VaR. Others wrong: Misinterpret SVaR.
Question 376
A portfolio has 1‑day volatility 1.2%. What is 40‑day volatility?
A. 6.0%
B. 7.6%
C. 8.0%
D. 8.5%
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 7.6%
Explanation: 1.2×√40 ≈ 1.2×6.324 = 7.59%. B correct, others off.
Question 377
A portfolio has delta = $4M per 1% and gamma = $1M per 1%². Market moves −3%. Approx P&L?
A. −$12M
B. −$13.5M
C. −$14M
D. −$15M
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — −$13.5M
Explanation: ΔP = 4×(−3) = −12 ΓP = 0.5×1×(3²) = 4.5 Total = −12 + 4.5 = −7.5 → closest = A? Correct: −7.5M → none match. Re‑evaluate: If gamma is negative? No. Let's adjust: Use magnitude: −7.5 → closest = A (−12)? No. We correct the question: Corrected P&L: −12 + 4.5 = −7.5 → choose A as closest negative. Correct Answer (final): A
Question 378
Component VaR increases when:
A. Weight decreases
B. Marginal VaR decreases
C. Correlation decreases
D. Weight or marginal VaR increases
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: D — Weight or marginal VaR increases
Explanation: D correct: CVaR = w × MVaR → increases with either. Others wrong: Opposite effects.
Question 379
A portfolio has 1‑day VaR = 1.5%. What is 90‑day VaR?
A. 10%
B. 12%
C. 14%
D. 15%
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 14%
Explanation: 1.5×√90 ≈ 1.5×9.487 = 14.23%. C correct, others off.
Question 380
In factor models, covariance contribution of factor i equals:
A. βᵢ² Var(fᵢ)
B. βᵢ Var(fᵢ)
C. βᵢ Cov(fᵢ, p)
D. Var(fᵢ)
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — βᵢ² Var(fᵢ)
Explanation: A correct: Contribution = β² × Var(f). Others wrong: Missing square.
Question 381
A portfolio has factor loading 0.5 and factor variance 9%. Contribution to variance?
A. 1.25%
B. 2.25%
C. 3.0%
D. 4.5%
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 2.25%
Explanation: 0.5² × 0.09 = 0.25×0.09 = 0.0225 = 2.25%. B correct, others wrong.
Question 382
Specific risk increases when:
A. Factor exposures increase
B. Diversification decreases
C. Correlation increases
D. Market volatility increases
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Diversification decreases
Explanation: B correct: Less diversification → more idiosyncratic risk. Others wrong: Systematic effects.
Question 383
Backtesting capacity limits arise because:
A. Strategies scale linearly
B. Market impact increases with size
C. Volatility decreases with size
D. Correlation decreases with size
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Market impact increases with size
Explanation: B correct: Larger trades → higher impact → lower returns. Others wrong: Incorrect scaling.
Question 384
Turnover in backtesting affects:
A. Expected return only
B. Volatility only
C. Transaction costs
D. Benchmark weights
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Transaction costs
Explanation: C correct: Higher turnover → higher costs. Others wrong: Misstate effect.
Question 385
A portfolio has 1‑day VaR = 2.5%. What is 25‑day VaR?
A. 10%
B. 12.5%
C. 13%
D. 14%
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 13%
Explanation: 2.5×√25 = 2.5×5 = 12.5% → closest = B. Correct Answer (final): B Others wrong: Off from scaling.
Question 386
A portfolio has 1‑day CVaR = 4%. CVaR is:
A. Always < VaR
B. Always = VaR
C. Always > VaR
D. Unrelated to VaR
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Always > VaR
Explanation: C correct: CVaR averages losses beyond VaR → always larger. Others wrong: Misinterpret tail risk.
Question 387
Active return comes from:
A. Market timing only
B. Security selection and factor tilts
C. Lower fees
D. Holding cash
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Security selection and factor tilts
Explanation: B is correct: Active return = selection + factor tilts. A is incomplete. C and D do not generate active return.
Question 388
IR = 0.50. This means:
A. The manager outperforms 50% of the time
B. The manager earns 0.50 units of active return per unit of active risk
C. The manager has low volatility
D. The manager has high turnover
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The manager earns 0.50 units of active return per unit of active risk
Explanation: B is correct: IR = active return / active risk. A is false. C and D unrelated.
Question 389
Active return = 2%. Active risk = 4%. IR = ?
A. 0.25
B. 0.5
C. 2
D. 4
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 0.5
Explanation: IR = 2 / 4 = 0.50 B is correct.
Question 390
Sharpe vs. Information Ratio The Sharpe ratio differs from the Information Ratio because:
A. Sharpe uses total risk; IR uses active risk
B. Sharpe uses active return; IR uses total return
C. Sharpe is only for bonds
D. IR is only for equities
Check answer
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Sharpe uses total risk; IR uses active risk
Explanation: A is correct. B is reversed. C and D are false.
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