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Free CFA Fixed Income Practice Questions & Answers
900 exam-style Fixed Income questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
100% free · No login to startQuestion 181
If the credit curve for a company is upward sloping, this most likely implies:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Higher default risk in later years than in the near term.
Explanation: An upward-sloping credit spread curve suggests the market expects greater credit risk further out in time. A: That would be more consistent with a downward-sloping credit curve. C/D: Credit spreads exist precisely because there is credit risk.
Question 182
A five-year corporate bond has a yield of (5.5%). The five-year government bond yield is (2.5%). What is the bond’s credit spread?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 3.0%
Explanation: [ \text{Credit spread} = 5.5% - 2.5% = 3.0% ] They are simple miscalculations or irrelevant numbers.
Question 183
In a credit default swap (CDS), the protection buyer:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Pays periodic premiums and receives a payoff if a credit event occurs.
Explanation: The protection buyer pays the spread and receives compensation if a defined credit event occurs. A/D: These describe the protection seller. C: That would make the contract pointless for the buyer.
Question 184
A credit event in a CDS contract typically includes:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Events such as bankruptcy or failure to pay.
Explanation: Credit events usually include bankruptcy, failure to pay, and sometimes restructuring, as defined in the contract. A/B: Not credit events in CDS terms. D: Rating downgrades alone are usually not sufficient unless explicitly included.
Question 185
In a CDS index with 100 equally weighted names and a notional of 100 million, a default of one name typically results in:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A settlement on 1 million notional and continuation of the index with reduced notional.
Explanation: Each name represents 1/100 of the notional, so a default triggers settlement on that slice, and the index continues with lower total notional. A: The index does not terminate after one default. C: Only the defaulted name’s share is settled. D: Settlements occur name by name.
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Question 186
Which statement best describes the CDS spread?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — It is the fixed coupon paid by the protection buyer.
Explanation: The CDS spread is the periodic premium paid by the protection buyer to the protection seller. A: The seller receives, not pays, the spread. C: Floating legs are not standard in plain-vanilla CDS. D: Recovery is not the spread.
Question 187
Assume a simple one-period CDS model with no discounting. The probability of default over the period is (3%), and the loss given default is (60%). What is the fair CDS spread for that period (as a percentage of notional)?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 1.8%
Explanation: Fair spread ≈ LGD × PD: [ 0.60 \times 0.03 = 0.018 = 1.8% ] B: Ignores LGD. C/D: Misinterpret LGD and PD.
Question 188
In cash settlement of a CDS, the recovery rate used for payout is typically:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — The rate implied by an auction of defaulted obligations.
Explanation: Market practice is to run an auction on the defaulted debt to determine a market-based recovery rate used for settlement. A: Actual recovery can take years and is uncertain. B: Analyst estimates are not binding. D: Coupon is unrelated to recovery. Question 1 A bond has a par value of 1,000, a 6% annual coupon paid semiannually, and 8 years to maturity. Similar bonds yield 5% (effective annual yield). Which statement best describes the bond’s price relative to par? A. It trades at par because coupon equals market yield. B. It trades at a premium because coupon rate exceeds market yield. C. It trades at a discount because coupon rate exceeds market yield. D. It trades at a discount because coupon rate is below market yield. Answer: B The bond’s nominal coupon rate is 6%, while the required yield is 5%. When the coupon rate is greater than the required yield, the present value of coupons plus principal exceeds par, so the bond trades at a premium. Question 2 Which of the following is most likely a negative covenant in a bond indenture? A. The issuer must provide audited financial statements annually. B. The issuer must maintain insurance on pledged assets. C. The issuer may not incur additional debt above a specified leverage ratio. D. The issuer must pay taxes and other claims before bondholders. Answer: C Negative covenants restrict the issuer’s actions (e.g., limits on additional debt). Positive (affirmative) covenants require actions such as providing financial statements...
Question 189
Which of the following is most characteristic of a mortgage-backed security (MBS)?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Cash flows that depend on prepayments of underlying mortgages
Explanation: MBS cash flows depend on scheduled amortization and unscheduled prepayments of the underlying mortgage loans, introducing prepayment and contraction/extension risk.
Question 190
Which of the following factors is most likely to cause widening credit spreads?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Rising risk aversion and deteriorating corporate fundamentals
Explanation: When risk aversion increases and fundamentals weaken, investors demand higher compensation for credit risk, causing spreads to widen.
Question 191
A sinking fund provision most likely:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Requires the issuer to retire a portion of the issue periodically
Explanation: Sinking fund provisions require the issuer to retire a specified portion of the bond issue over time, reducing default risk at maturity.
Question 192
A credit default swap (CDS) is best described as a contract in which:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — The protection buyer pays a premium and receives payments if a credit event occurs
Explanation: In a CDS, the protection buyer pays periodic premiums to the protection seller and receives a payoff if a defined credit event (e.g., default) occurs for the reference entity.
Question 193
A sequential‑pay CMO differs from a pass‑through MBS because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — It redistributes prepayment risk across tranches
Explanation: Sequential CMOs allocate prepayments sequentially, altering risk exposure.
Question 194
In a PAC tranche, the primary protection mechanism is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — A support tranche absorbing prepayment variability
Explanation: Support tranches absorb deviations from the PAC schedule.
Question 195
Which of the following is a reduced‑form credit model assumption?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Default probability is driven by observable market variables
Explanation: Reduced‑form models treat default as a stochastic process driven by market variables.
Question 196
A structural credit model assumes default occurs when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Firm value falls below a defined barrier
Explanation: Structural models (e.g., Merton) link default to firm value dynamics.
Question 197
A credit migration matrix is used to estimate:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Transition probabilities between rating categories
Explanation: Migration matrices show probabilities of rating upgrades/downgrades/default.
Question 198
The credit triangle expresses credit spread as approximately:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — PD × LGD
Explanation: Spread ≈ Probability of default × Loss given default.
Question 199
A downward‑sloping credit curve most likely indicates:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Higher short‑term default risk
Explanation: Downward credit curves imply elevated near‑term credit concerns.
Question 200
A CDS basis is defined as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Bond spread minus CDS spread
Explanation: Basis = bond spread − CDS spread.
Question 201
A positive CDS basis suggests:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — CDS is cheap relative to the bond
Explanation: Positive basis → CDS spread < bond spread → CDS protection is cheaper.
Question 202
In a CDS, the protection seller:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Receives periodic premiums
Explanation: Protection seller receives premiums and pays if a credit event occurs.
Question 203
The hazard rate is best described as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The conditional probability of default given survival
Explanation: Hazard rate = PD conditional on no prior default.
Question 204
A credit spread curve that steepens most likely indicates:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Worsening long‑term credit outlook
Explanation: Steeper credit curve → higher long‑term spreads → higher long‑term credit risk.
Question 205
A credit default swap premium is most closely related to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — PD × LGD
Explanation: CDS spread ≈ probability of default × loss given default.
Question 206
In a CDS, physical settlement means:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The protection buyer delivers a defaulted bond
Explanation: Buyer delivers defaulted obligation; seller pays par.
Question 207
A CDS index differs from a single‑name CDS because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — It references multiple entities
Explanation: Index CDS reference a basket of names.
Question 208
A PAC tranche is most stable when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Prepayments stay within the PAC collar
Explanation: PAC stability depends on prepayments staying within the planned range.
Question 209
A support tranche in a CMO:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Absorbs prepayment variability
Explanation: Support tranches absorb deviations from the PAC schedule.
Question 210
A planned amortization class (PAC) has:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Lower yield than support tranches
Explanation: PACs offer more stable cash flows → lower yield.
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