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Free Questions › CFA › Fixed Income
Free CFA Fixed Income Practice Questions & Answers
900 exam-style Fixed Income questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
100% free · No login to startQuestion 151
Spot Rate Bootstrapping A 2‑year bond has coupon 3%, price 99, and the 1‑year spot rate is 2%. What is the 2‑year spot rate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 3.5%
Explanation: Price = 3/1.02 + 103/(1+z₂)² = 99 3/1.02 = 2.941 99 − 2.941 = 96.059 (1+z₂)² = 103/96.059 = 1.0723 z₂ = √1.0723 − 1 = 3.54% → closest 3.5%. Trap: Many mistakenly divide by 2 instead of solving the square root.
Question 152
Survival Probability Hazard = 4%. 5‑year survival?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 80%
Explanation: S = e^(−0.04×5) = e^(−0.20) = 81.9% → closest 82% (C). Correct: C Trap: Using 1 − λT = 80%.
Question 153
Curve Strategy Expect bear steepening. Best strategy?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Bullet
Explanation: Bear steepening = long yields rise more → bullet (mid‑curve) suffers less. Trap: Choosing barbell (wrong for bear steepening).
Question 154
Risky Bond Price Risk‑free DF = 0.95, hazard = 3%, recovery = 40%. Expected payoff?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 97
Explanation: Expected payoff = 0.97×100 + 0.03×40 = 97 + 1.2 = 98.2 → closest 98 (C). Correct: C Trap: Using 100×(1−PD).
Question 155
The Ho‑Lee model is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Non mean‑reverting with normal rates
Explanation: Ho‑Lee: (dr = \theta(t)dt + \sigma dW), normal, no mean reversion.
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Question 156
The Vasicek model has:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Mean reversion with normal rates
Explanation: Vasicek: (dr = a(b−r)dt + \sigma dW), mean‑reverting, normal.
Question 157
CIR model ensures:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Non‑negative rates
Explanation: CIR: square‑root diffusion → rates stay non‑negative.
Question 158
BDT (Black‑Derman‑Toy) is typically calibrated to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Yield curve and short‑rate volatility
Explanation: BDT: fits initial term structure and short‑rate vol.
Question 159
A key advantage of Hull‑White vs Vasicek:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Closed‑form for caps/floors and swaptions
Explanation: Hull‑White has tractable formulas for many IR derivatives.
Question 160
In a recombining binomial short‑rate tree, calibration ensures:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Tree matches entire initial yield curve
Explanation: Calibration forces tree to fit the initial term structure.
Question 161
In BDT, the short rate is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Lognormal
Explanation: BDT assumes lognormal short rates.
Question 162
Post‑crisis, the standard discount curve for collateralized derivatives is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — OIS curve
Explanation: Collateralized trades are discounted using OIS.
Question 163
In a multi‑curve framework, forward rates for 3‑month LIBOR are derived from:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — OIS discounting + 3M basis curve
Explanation: Discount with OIS, project with tenor‑specific forward curve.
Question 164
Bootstrapping the OIS curve uses:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — OIS swaps and overnight deposits
Explanation: OIS curve from overnight + OIS swaps.
Question 165
A FRA priced under multi‑curve uses:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — OIS for discounting, LIBOR curve for forwarding
Explanation: Standard: OIS discounting, tenor curve for forward.
Question 166
The main reason for multi‑curve adoption was:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Credit and liquidity basis between tenors
Explanation: Post‑crisis, basis between LIBOR tenors became material. Inflation‑linked bonds & breakeven
Question 167
A nominal 10‑year yield is 4%, real yield is 1.5%. Breakeven inflation is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 2.5%
Explanation: Breakeven ≈ nominal − real = 2.5%.
Question 168
If realized inflation exceeds breakeven, TIPS (real bonds) vs nominals:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — TIPS outperform
Explanation: Higher realized inflation than breakeven → TIPS win.
Question 169
Inflation‑linked bonds typically adjust:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Both coupon and principal (via indexed principal)
Explanation: Principal is indexed; coupon on indexed principal.
Question 170
An inflation swap where you pay fixed and receive realized inflation benefits you if:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Realized inflation > fixed
Explanation: You receive inflation; you win if inflation > fixed.
Question 171
In a general collateral (GC) repo, the main driver of the repo rate is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — General funding conditions
Explanation: GC repo reflects general funding rates.
Question 172
Implied repo rate arbitrage involves:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Buying bond, financing via repo, and comparing to futures
Explanation: Classic cash‑and‑carry vs futures → implied repo.
Question 173
A higher haircut in repo:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Increases lender’s protection
Explanation: Higher haircut → more collateral → more protection.
Question 174
Nelson‑Siegel model primarily fits:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Yield curve level, slope, curvature
Explanation: Nelson‑Siegel decomposes into level, slope, curvature.
Question 175
PCA of yield curve changes typically finds:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Three main factors: level, slope, curvature
Explanation: Empirically: level, slope, curvature explain most variance.
Question 176
A parallel shift is mainly captured by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Level factor
Explanation: Parallel move = level.
Question 177
A steepening of the curve (long rates up, short rates down) is mainly:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Slope move
Explanation: Steepening/flattening = slope factor.
Question 178
Monte Carlo simulation in fixed income is especially useful when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Cash flows are path dependent.
Explanation: Monte Carlo is powerful when cash flows depend on the entire path of rates, such as prepayments in mortgage-backed securities. A: Path dependence is the key, not just the final rate. C: If rates are constant, simulation is unnecessary. D: Monte Carlo is about many paths, not one.
Question 179
The loss given default (LGD) is best defined as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The percentage of exposure that is not recovered after default.
Explanation: LGD = (1 -) recovery rate, expressed as a percentage of exposure. A: That’s probability of default. C: LGD includes principal and possibly interest, not just interest. D: Face value is the exposure, not the loss.
Question 180
A bond has an exposure of 100, a recovery rate of 40%, and a probability of default of 5% over one year. What is the expected loss over one year?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 3
Explanation: LGD = (1 - 0.40 = 0.60). Expected loss = Exposure × LGD × PD [ = 100 \times 0.60 \times 0.05 = 3.0 ] B: 5 is just the PD in percent times exposure, ignoring recovery. C/D: Overstate the loss.
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