You’re on a roll
Create a free account to save your CFA progress, track your accuracy by topic, and pick up right where you left off.
Free Questions › CFA › Equity
Free CFA Equity Practice Questions & Answers
400 exam-style Equity questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
100% free · No login to startQuestion 241
H‑model vs two‑stage DDM A firm’s growth is expected to decline from 14% to 4% over 8 years, then remain at 4%. Which model best captures this pattern?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — H‑model
Explanation: Why correct: H‑model is designed for a linear decline from a high growth rate to a stable rate over a finite horizon. A: Assumes constant growth. B: Assumes an abrupt shift, not a gradual decline. D: RI can be used but doesn’t specifically model a linear growth fade.
Question 242
RI vs DDM – when they diverge RI and DDM valuations for a firm differ materially even though clean surplus holds. Which is the most likely cause?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Different growth assumptions for book value and dividends
Explanation: Why correct: Under clean surplus and consistent assumptions, RI and DDM should match; divergence usually reflects inconsistent growth assumptions for earnings/book value vs dividends. A: Using different discount rates is an error, not a model feature. C/D: These matter only insofar as they change growth/earnings assumptions; they’re not the direct conceptual reason.
Question 243
FCFF terminal value – growth constraint In a stable‑growth FCFF model, which condition must hold for the terminal value formula to be valid?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — g < WACC
Explanation: Why correct: If g ≥ WACC, the denominator (WACC − g) becomes zero or negative, making the model invalid or nonsensical. A/B: Lead to infinite or undefined values. D: Growth is critical to the terminal value formula.
Question 244
Industry structure and ROE sustainability A firm has ROE well above its required return due to a patent‑protected product in a highly concentrated industry with high switching costs. Which is most likely about its residual income?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — RI will persist for a long period
Explanation: Why correct: Strong competitive advantages (patents, concentration, switching costs) support persistent abnormal earnings and RI. A: Quick reversion contradicts the moat described. C: High ROE > r implies positive RI, not negative. D: Industry structure is central to RI persistence.
Question 245
FCFE vs dividends – payout policy A firm has FCFE significantly higher than dividends for many years, with no clear investment opportunities. Which valuation approach is most likely to understate intrinsic value?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — DDM
Explanation: Why correct: DDM uses actual dividends; if dividends are persistently below sustainable distributable cash flow, DDM undervalues the firm. A: FCFE captures true equity cash flow capacity. C: RI uses earnings and book value, not just dividends. D: Asset‑based ignores going‑concern cash flow potential.
Get the full CFA question bank — free
Drop your email and we'll send you fresh CFA practice questions, fully worked solutions and exam-deadline reminders. No spam — unsubscribe in one click.
Want to save your score and take a full mock exam? Create a free account →
Question 246
Operating leverage and equity risk Two firms are identical except Firm X has much higher fixed costs and lower variable costs than Firm Y. All else equal, which is most likely?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Firm X has higher equity beta
Explanation: Why correct: Higher operating leverage amplifies earnings volatility, increasing equity beta. A: Opposite of leverage effect. C: Ignores cost structure differences. D: Cost structure is a key driver of operating risk and beta.
Question 247
Residual income and accounting conservatism A firm adopts more conservative accounting (higher expensing, lower reported earnings) without changing its economics. What is the most likely short‑term effect on RI valuation?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — RI decreases because earnings fall
Explanation: Why correct: Lower reported earnings reduce residual income in the short run, even if underlying economics are unchanged. A: Book value may fall, but the immediate effect is lower NI and RI. C: RI is accounting‑based and will reflect the conservatism. D: It may or may not become negative; the direction is down, not necessarily below zero.
Question 248
A discount for lack of marketability (DLOM) is applied because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Private shares are harder to sell
Explanation: Why correct: Illiquidity reduces value → DLOM. A: ROE irrelevant. C: Taxes unrelated. D: Dividend policy irrelevant.
Question 249
Market Efficiency – Semi‑Strong Form Which strategy should NOT consistently generate abnormal returns in a semi‑strong efficient market?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Trading on public earnings announcements
Explanation: Why correct: Semi‑strong form: public info is already priced in. B, C, D: Private/inside info can still generate abnormal returns.
Question 250
Market microstructure primarily studies:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Trading processes and price formation
Explanation: Why correct: Microstructure = mechanics of trading. A: Valuation theory. C: Behavioral finance. D: Governance.
Question 251
Bid‑Ask Spread – Drivers Which factor widens bid‑ask spreads?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — High information asymmetry
Explanation: Why correct: Dealers widen spreads when informed traders may exploit them. A, B: Narrow spreads. D: Low volatility → narrow spreads.
Question 252
Market Efficiency – Semi‑Strong Form Semi‑strong form efficiency implies that:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — All public information is reflected in prices
Explanation: Why correct: Semi‑strong: prices reflect all public information. A: Weak form. C: Strong form. D: Nonsensical.
Question 253
Market Microstructure – Bid‑Ask Spread Which factor most likely widens bid‑ask spreads?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — High information asymmetry
Explanation: Why correct: Dealers widen spreads when they fear trading against better‑informed traders. A, B: Narrow spreads. D: Low volatility → narrower spreads.
Question 254
A discount for lack of marketability (DLOM) is most likely larger when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: D — The firm has uncertain exit opportunities
Explanation: Why correct: Uncertain exit → greater illiquidity → larger DLOM. A, B, C: All reduce perceived illiquidity.
Question 255
Incumbents are most likely to retaliate aggressively when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Entrant threatens core profit pool
Explanation: Why correct: Threat to core profits → strong retaliation. A: High growth reduces rivalry. B: Low‑value customers → low threat. D: Geographic separation reduces conflict. 📍 MARKET EFFICIENCY & MICROSTRUCTURE — 30 MCQs WITH FULL EXPLANATIONS
Question 256
Weak‑Form Efficiency – Implication If markets are weak‑form efficient, which strategy should NOT consistently work?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Momentum trading
Explanation: Why correct: Weak‑form efficiency: past prices contain no exploitable information → momentum/technical strategies fail. B: Insider info is private → still profitable. C: Fundamental analysis may still work. D: Macro info is public but not purely historical prices.
Question 257
Which anomaly most directly contradicts weak‑form efficiency?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — January effect
Explanation: Why correct: January effect is based on calendar patterns in past returns → violates weak‑form. B: Semi‑strong violation. C/D: Risk‑based explanations possible.
Question 258
A market order exposes the trader to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Price uncertainty
Explanation: Why correct: Market orders execute immediately but at uncertain prices. A: Execution is certain. C: Price uncertainty always exists. D: Liquidity risk is part of price uncertainty.
Question 259
Adverse selection occurs when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Informed traders trade against uninformed traders
Explanation: Why correct: Informed traders exploit uninformed → spreads widen. A/B/D: No adverse selection.
Question 260
In a dealer market, liquidity is provided by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Dealers trading from inventory
Explanation: Why correct: Dealers quote bid/ask and trade from inventory. A: Auction markets. C: Exchange order books. D: Off‑exchange venues.
Question 261
Auction markets provide liquidity by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Order matching
Explanation: Why correct: Auction markets match buy/sell orders directly. A/C: Dealer markets. D: Alternative trading systems.
Question 262
Liquidity is best described as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Ability to trade quickly at low cost
Explanation: Why correct: Liquidity = speed + low cost + minimal impact. B/C/D: Partial or incorrect definitions.
Question 263
Post‑earnings announcement drift (PEAD) violates:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Semi‑strong
Explanation: Why correct: PEAD = slow reaction to public info → semi‑strong violation. A: Not based on past prices. C: Private info irrelevant. D: It is a violation.
Question 264
Noise traders increase:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Price volatility
Explanation: Why correct: Noise traders create random price movements → volatility rises. A: Reduce efficiency. C/D: Partial effects.
Question 265
Dark pools reduce:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Market impact
Explanation: Why correct: Dark pools hide order size → lower impact. A: Execution less certain. C: They fragment liquidity. D: Transparency decreases, not increases.
Question 266
Market depth refers to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Volume available at each price level
Explanation: Why correct: Depth = quantity available at each price. A/C/D: Other liquidity dimensions.
Question 267
Tightness refers to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Bid‑ask spread
Explanation: Why correct: Tightness = low spreads. B: Depth. C: Speed of price recovery. D: Not liquidity.
Question 268
Resiliency refers to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Speed at which prices revert after trades
Explanation: Why correct: Resiliency = how fast liquidity replenishes. B/C/D: Not resiliency.
Question 269
Bid‑ask spreads widen when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Informed trading increases
Explanation: Why correct: Dealers protect themselves from informed traders. B/C/D: Narrow spreads.
Question 270
Temporary price impact is caused by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Liquidity demand
Explanation: Why correct: Liquidity‑driven trades move prices temporarily. A/C: Permanent impact. D: Not microstructure.
More free CFA topics
Economics2,066
Quantitative Methods1,213
Portfolio Management1,079
Fixed Income908
Financial Statement Analysis904
Corporate Issuers884
Portfolio Construction605
Alternative Investments540
Specialized Pathway - Private Markets500
Asset Allocation499
Derivatives498
Performance Measurement295
Specialized Pathway - Portfolio Management253
Derivatives and Risk Management131
Ten questions in
- The ones you miss are saved as a drill you can repeat
- Your place is kept, on this device and any other
- A streak, if that is the thing that gets you back tomorrow
Every question on this page stays free and open either way.