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Free Questions › CFA › Equity
Free CFA Equity Practice Questions & Answers
400 exam-style Equity questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
100% free · No login to startQuestion 271
Permanent price impact is caused by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Informed trading
Explanation: Why correct: Informed trades reveal new information → permanent price change. A/C/D: Temporary effects.
Question 272
A minority discount reflects:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Lack of control
Explanation: Why correct: Minority stakes cannot influence decisions → discounted. A/C: Marketability discounts are separate. D: Profitability unrelated.
Question 273
The discount for lack of marketability (DLOM) is highest when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Exit opportunities are uncertain
Explanation: Why correct: Uncertain exit → high illiquidity → high DLOM. A/B/D: Reduce perceived illiquidity.
Question 274
Estimating beta for private firms is difficult because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — They have no market prices
Explanation: Why correct: Beta requires market returns → unavailable for private firms. B/C/D: Not required for beta.
Question 275
A common solution is to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Use industry unlevered beta
Explanation: Why correct: Use public comps → unlever → relever for private firm. A: Impossible without market returns. C/D: Not meaningful.
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Question 276
DLOM increases when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Expected holding period increases
Explanation: Why correct: Longer holding → higher illiquidity → higher DLOM. A: Opposite. C/D: Not primary drivers.
Question 277
Higher volatility:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Increases DLOM
Explanation: Why correct: Volatility increases uncertainty → higher illiquidity discount. A/C/D: Opposite.
Question 278
Private firms often have:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Higher leverage due to limited equity access
Explanation: Why correct: Private firms rely more on debt → limited equity markets. A/C/D: Not typical.
Question 279
Cash flows of private firms are riskier because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — They have less diversification
Explanation: Why correct: Private firms often rely on few customers/products. A: Opposite. C/D: Reduce risk.
Question 280
Size premium is added because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Small firms have higher risk
Explanation: Why correct: Small firms → higher volatility → higher required return. A/C/D: Opposite.
Question 281
Illiquidity affects valuation by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Increasing discount rate
Explanation: Why correct: Illiquidity → higher required return. B/C/D: Incorrect.
Question 282
Market efficiency and anomalies You observe a persistent post‑earnings announcement drift (PEAD) in a large, liquid market. Which form of efficiency is directly violated?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Semi‑strong form
Explanation: Why correct: PEAD reflects slow adjustment to public earnings information, contradicting semi‑strong efficiency. A: Weak form concerns only past prices. C: Strong form includes private info; PEAD is about public info. D: While some argue risk‑based explanations, the direct implication is semi‑strong violation.
Question 283
Market efficiency and active management In a market that is weak‑form efficient but not semi‑strong efficient, which strategy has the highest potential to generate abnormal returns?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Fundamental analysis based on public financial statements
Explanation: Why correct: Weak‑form efficiency rules out technical analysis, but semi‑strong failure leaves room for fundamental analysis on public information. A/C: Both rely on past price/volume, which are already reflected. D: Random picking has zero expected alpha.
Question 284
DLOM and volatility For a private firm with highly volatile cash flows and no foreseeable liquidity event, what happens to the discount for lack of marketability (DLOM)?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — It increases due to higher uncertainty and illiquidity
Explanation: Why correct: Higher volatility and no clear exit increase the cost of being locked in, raising DLOM. A: Upside doesn’t offset illiquidity risk in valuation. C: DLOM is sensitive to risk and exit horizon. D: Control does not eliminate illiquidity.
Question 285
Market microstructure – informed trading In a quote‑driven market, an increase in informed trading relative to liquidity trading will most likely:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Widen bid‑ask spreads
Explanation: Why correct: Dealers widen spreads to protect against adverse selection when informed trading rises. A/C/D: All contradict the basic adverse selection logic.
Question 286
Private vs public discount rates A private firm and a similar public firm have identical business risk and capital structure. Which is most likely about their discount rates?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Private firm’s discount rate is higher due to illiquidity and company‑specific risk
Explanation: Why correct: Private firms face additional illiquidity and idiosyncratic risks, warranting a higher required return. A/D: Scrutiny and disclosure generally reduce risk, not increase it. C: Ignores private‑market frictions.
Question 287
Market efficiency and limits to arbitrage A clear mispricing persists in a liquid market for months, but exploiting it requires large capital and exposes arbitrageurs to significant interim losses. Which is most accurate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Mispricing persists due to limits to arbitrage
Explanation: Why correct: Even in liquid markets, capital constraints, risk, and career concerns can prevent arbitrage from eliminating mispricing. A: Weak‑form concerns past prices, not this scenario. C: Mispricing can persist even with public information. D: Liquidity does not guarantee perfect efficiency.
Question 288
A stock’s quoted spread is very tight, but depth at the best bid and ask is small due to HFT activity.
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Liquidity is low because depth is limited
Explanation: Why correct: Tight spreads with shallow depth can still mean poor liquidity for larger orders. A/C/D: Ignore the depth dimension.
Question 289
Which firm characteristic suggests low persistence?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Large one‑time gains
Explanation: One‑time items are not sustainable → low persistence.
Question 290
A firm with RI consistently equal to zero should trade at:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — P/B = 1
Explanation: If RI = 0, value = book value → P/B = 1.
Question 291
PEG ratio is least reliable when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Growth is uncertain
Explanation: Why correct: PEG relies heavily on accurate growth forecasts. A: Stable growth → PEG more reliable. C: Positive earnings → PEG usable. D: Low P/E doesn’t inherently distort PEG.
Question 292
P/E (forward)?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Higher expected growth
Explanation: Why correct: P/E ≈ payout / (r − g). Higher g → higher P/E. A, D: Increase denominator → lower P/E. B: Low payout → lower numerator.
Question 293
P/S ratios is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — They ignore profitability
Explanation: Why correct: Sales multiples ignore margins → misleading. B: They use revenue. C, D: Not required.
Question 294
A control premium is justified because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Control allows operational changes
Explanation: Why correct: Control → ability to change strategy, capital structure, payouts. A: Liquidity unrelated. C: Taxes unaffected. D: Risk remains.
Question 295
P/E = 20 and growth = 10%. PEG = ?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 1
Explanation: Why correct: PEG = P/E ÷ g = 20 ÷ 10 = 2.0? Wait: growth must be in whole numbers → 10% = 10. PEG = 20/10 = 2.0 → correct answer is C. A, B, D: Incorrect math.
Question 296
P/CF?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Higher expected cash flow growth
Explanation: Why correct: Higher growth → higher multiple. A, B: Increase discount rate → lower multiple. D: Lower margins → lower cash flow.
Question 297
Which change most likely increases a firm’s justified P/E (forward)?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Increase in payout ratio
Explanation: Why correct: Forward P/E ≈ payout / (r − g). Higher payout → higher numerator → higher P/E. A, D: Increase r → lower P/E. B: Lower g → lower P/E.
Question 298
EV/EBITDA often preferred over P/E for cross‑company comparisons?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — It ignores capital structure and depreciation
Explanation: Why correct: EV/EBITDA is pre‑interest, pre‑tax, pre‑depreciation, making it less sensitive to capital structure and accounting policies. B: It explicitly avoids interest and taxes. C: It is less affected, not completely unaffected. D: Dividends are irrelevant.
Question 299
Which is the main limitation of the price‑to‑sales ratio?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — It ignores profitability
Explanation: Why correct: Sales multiples do not reflect margins; high sales with low margins can still be poor investments. B, C, D: Also issues, but the primary weakness is ignoring profitability.
Question 300
P/E = 18 and expected growth = 9%. What is the PEG ratio?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 2
Explanation: Why correct: PEG = P/E ÷ g (g in whole percent) = 18 ÷ 9 = 2.0. A, B, D: Incorrect arithmetic or mis‑scaling of growth.
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