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Free Questions › CFA › Equity
Free CFA Equity Practice Questions & Answers
400 exam-style Equity questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
100% free · No login to startQuestion 211
Main risk of cost leadership strategy:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Competitors imitate cost structure
Explanation: Why correct: If competitors match costs → advantage disappears. A: Helps cost leaders. C: Helps cost leaders. D: Helps all firms.
Question 212
Main risk of differentiation strategy:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Customers become more price‑sensitive
Explanation: Why correct: If customers stop valuing uniqueness → differentiation fails. B: Affects cost leaders. C: Not specific to differentiation. D: Helps differentiation.
Question 213
Profit pools are deepest when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Value chain has bottlenecks
Explanation: Why correct: Bottlenecks → pricing power → high profits. A/C/D: Reduce profitability.
Question 214
Cost curve analysis is most useful when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Firms have heterogeneous cost structures
Explanation: Why correct: Cost curve identifies marginal producers → price dynamics. A: No insight gained. C/D: Not specific.
Question 215
Semi‑Strong Efficiency – Earnings Surprise Semi‑strong efficiency implies that:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Prices adjust immediately after announcements
Explanation: Why correct: Semi‑strong: all public info is incorporated immediately. A: Would imply insider trading. C: Slow adjustment contradicts semi‑strong. D: Opposite of definition.
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Question 216
Strong‑Form Efficiency – Implication Strong‑form efficiency implies:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Private information cannot generate abnormal returns
Explanation: Why correct: Strong‑form: all information (public + private) is priced. B: Semi‑strong. C/D: Opposite.
Question 217
Microstructure – Bid‑Ask Spread Bid‑ask spreads widen when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Information asymmetry increases
Explanation: Why correct: Dealers widen spreads to protect against informed traders. B/C/D: Narrow spreads.
Question 218
A limit order exposes the trader to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Execution uncertainty
Explanation: Why correct: Limit orders guarantee price but may not execute. A: Market orders have price uncertainty. C/D: Incorrect.
Question 219
High‑Frequency Trading – Advantage HFT firms gain advantage primarily through:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Speed and order‑book visibility
Explanation: Why correct: HFT profits from speed and microstructure signals. A/C/D: Not relevant to HFT.
Question 220
Market impact cost is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Cost due to price movement caused by the trade
Explanation: Why correct: Large trades move prices → impact cost. A/C/D: Other cost categories.
Question 221
Implementation shortfall includes:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Both explicit and implicit costs
Explanation: Why correct: Includes commissions, spreads, delay, and impact. A/B/D: Partial.
Question 222
Price discovery is most efficient when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Trading volume is high
Explanation: Why correct: High volume → more information → better price discovery. A/B: Reduce efficiency. D: Low volatility ≠ efficient discovery.
Question 223
Overreaction to news violates:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Semi‑strong
Explanation: Why correct: Semi‑strong requires correct incorporation of public info. A: Weak‑form only concerns past prices. C: Strong‑form includes private info. D: Overreaction is a violation.
Question 224
Arbitrage may fail because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Arbitrageurs face capital constraints
Explanation: Why correct: Capital limits → arbitrage cannot fully correct mispricing. A: Prices may diverge. C: Arbitrage is risky. D: Arbitrageurs do not have perfect info.
Question 225
Quote‑Driven vs Order‑Driven Quote‑driven markets rely on:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Dealers
Explanation: Why correct: Dealers provide quotes. B/C: Order‑driven. D: Off‑exchange.
Question 226
Order‑Driven Markets Order‑driven markets rely on:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Order matching
Explanation: Why correct: Orders interact directly. A/C/D: Dealer‑driven features.
Question 227
Market impact is highest when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Market depth is low
Explanation: Why correct: Low depth → large orders move prices. A: High depth absorbs orders. C/D: Secondary effects.
Question 228
Arbitrage opportunities persist when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Arbitrage is costly or risky
Explanation: Why correct: Costs/risks prevent arbitrage from eliminating mispricing. A: Arbitrage is rarely risk‑free. C/D: Would eliminate mispricing.
Question 229
Method (GTM) is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — It reflects control valuations
Explanation: Why correct: GTM uses transaction prices, typically control-level. A: Opposite. C/D: GTM reflects both synergies and cycles.
Question 230
Build‑Up Model – Unique Feature The build‑up model differs from CAPM because it:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Assumes beta = 1
Explanation: Why correct: Build‑up adds premiums without scaling by beta → implicitly β = 1. A: No beta used. C/D: Opposite.
Question 231
Pass‑Through Entities – Tax Issue Valuing pass‑through entities (e.g., LLCs) requires adjusting for:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Lower effective tax rates
Explanation: Why correct: Pass‑throughs avoid corporate tax → higher cash flows. A/C/D: Not defining features.
Question 232
Normalization adjustments aim to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Reflect sustainable economic earnings
Explanation: Why correct: Normalization removes non‑recurring or discretionary items. A/C/D: Not the purpose.
Question 233
Control valuations typically use:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Discretionary cash flows
Explanation: Why correct: Control owners can change policies → use discretionary cash flows. A: Reported earnings include distortions. C: Dividends irrelevant. D: FCFE may not reflect control adjustments.
Question 234
The discount for lack of control (DLOC) is typically derived from:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 1 − (1 / (1 + control premium))
Explanation: Why correct: DLOC = 1 − 1/(1 + CP). B/C/D: Not formulas for DLOC.
Question 235
Owner compensation is adjusted because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — It may not reflect market compensation
Explanation: Why correct: Owners often pay themselves above/below market → normalize. A: Not always. C/D: Not the reason.
Question 236
Asset‑Based Approach – Best Use Asset‑based valuation is most appropriate when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Firm is in liquidation or distress
Explanation: Why correct: Liquidation → asset values matter most. A/B/D: Income or market approaches better.
Question 237
Terminal value in private company valuation is more uncertain because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Long‑term competitive position is unclear
Explanation: Why correct: Private firms face uncertain competitive durability. A/B/D: Opposite or irrelevant.
Question 238
Integrated valuation – consistency check You value a stock using a Gordon Growth DDM and get $48. Using a stable‑growth FCFE model with consistent inputs (same growth, same risk, same cash flows), you get $60. Which is most likely?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — DDM is using dividends that understate true distributable cash flow
Explanation: Why correct: If FCFE > dividends (e.g., firm retains excess cash or underpays dividends), a DDM using only dividends will understate value relative to an FCFE model with consistent risk and growth. A: Lower discount rate in FCFE would overstate value, but inconsistency in cash flow definition is the more direct explanation. C: DDM doesn’t “double‑count” growth if applied correctly. D: FCFE explicitly incorporates leverage via interest and net borrowing.
Question 239
ROE, growth, and P/B A firm has ROE = 18%, required return = 10%, and retention = 40%. Which statement is most consistent with an RI‑based valuation?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Justified P/B > 1 because ROE exceeds required return
Explanation: Why correct: ROE > r implies positive residual income and value creation, so justified P/B > 1. A: Low retention doesn’t offset ROE > r enough to push P/B below 1. C: P/B = 1 only if ROE = r. D: RI‑based P/B does not require FCFF.
Question 240
FCFF vs FCFE – leverage change A firm plans to significantly increase leverage over the next five years. Which valuation approach is most robust?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — FCFF model discounted at WACC
Explanation: Why correct: When leverage is changing, FCFF discounted at WACC is more stable and less distorted than FCFE. A/B: FCFE becomes highly unstable when leverage is changing. D: DDM ignores capital structure dynamics and may misrepresent value if payout policy is not aligned with true cash‑flow capacity.
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