Free ACCA Financial Reporting Practice Questions & Answers
400 exam-style Financial Reporting questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
100% free · No login to start
Question 91
A company has borrowed 2,000,000 at 6% to fund a qualifying asset under construction, earning 30,000 from temporarily investing surplus funds. What is the net borrowing cost eligible for capitalisation?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 90,000
Explanation: B
Question 92
Under the indirect method, a gain on disposal of non-current assets is shown in the operating cash flow section as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A deduction from profit before tax
Explanation: B
Question 93
Entity A has an obligation to dismantle an oil platform at the end of its 20-year life, estimated at 5,000,000 in today's money. What should be recognised on day one?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — A provision at the present value of 5,000,000 and an equal addition to the asset cost
Explanation: C
Question 94
An entity's financial statements show a 200,000 provision at the prior year end. During the current year, the actual cost of settling the obligation was 240,000. The additional 40,000 should be:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Charged to profit or loss as an expense in the current period
Explanation: B
Question 95
Which of the following would make a deferred tax liability arise?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Accelerated tax depreciation allowances exceeding accounting depreciation in the current period
Explanation: A
Get the full ACCA question bank — free
Drop your email and we'll send you fresh ACCA practice questions, fully worked solutions and exam-deadline reminders. No spam — unsubscribe in one click.
An asset has a carrying amount of 500 and a tax base of 350. The applicable tax rate is 25%. What is the resulting deferred tax?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — A deferred tax liability of 37.50
Explanation: A
Question 97
A provision for bad debts creates a deductible temporary difference because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The provision is not yet deductible for tax purposes, so the tax base of the related liability is lower than its carrying amount
Explanation: B
Question 98
Entity B has general borrowings of 4,000,000 at 8% and 2,000,000 at 5%. During the year it spent 1,200,000 on a qualifying asset. What is the borrowing cost capitalised?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 79,200
Explanation: C
Question 99
An entity has total comprehensive income of 800,000, of which profit is 650,000 and OCI is 150,000. Dividends paid were 100,000, and new shares were issued raising 200,000. Opening equity was 2,000,000. What is closing equity?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 2,900,000
Explanation: A
Question 100
A company's accounting policy is to recognise a provision for warranties based on historical return rates. This year, management decides that no provision is needed because product quality has improved. How should this be classified and what are the financial reporting implications?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A change in accounting estimate — apply prospectively; the provision is reduced or eliminated in the current period
Explanation: B
Question 101
Under IAS 8, which of the following changes requires retrospective restatement of all prior periods presented?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A change from the cost model to the revaluation model for a class of assets
Explanation: B
Question 102
An entity discovers it understated depreciation by 50,000 in the prior year. The tax rate is 25%. What is the correcting entry in the current year comparative statements under retrospective restatement?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Dr Retained earnings 37,500; Dr Deferred tax asset 12,500; Cr Accumulated depreciation 50,000
Explanation: B
Question 103
An entity measures a provision at the probability-weighted expected value. There are three possible outcomes: 100,000 (30% probability), 200,000 (50%), 350,000 (20%). What is the provision?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 185,000
Explanation: C
Question 104
Where are ordinary dividends paid to shareholders reported in the statement of cash flows?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Financing activities
Explanation: C
Question 105
Which of the following items is included in other comprehensive income (OCI)?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Revaluation gains on property, plant and equipment
Explanation: B
Question 106
Total comprehensive income equals:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Profit for the year plus other comprehensive income
Explanation: C
Question 107
Which of the following increases equity?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Issue of new shares at market price
Explanation: B
Question 108
What does a statement of changes in equity show?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — All movements in each component of equity during the period
Explanation: B
Question 109
What is share premium?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The excess of the issue price of shares over their nominal (par) value
Explanation: B
Question 110
Which of the following is NOT a component of shareholders equity?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Long-term bank loan
Explanation: C
Question 111
What does earnings per share (EPS) measure?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The profit attributable to each ordinary share
Explanation: B
Question 112
Which ratio measures the return generated on equity invested by shareholders?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Return on equity (ROE)
Explanation: C
Question 113
What is the formula for return on capital employed (ROCE)?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Operating profit divided by (total assets minus current liabilities)
Explanation: B
Question 114
Gross profit margin is calculated as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Gross profit divided by revenue, expressed as a percentage
Explanation: B
Question 115
The current ratio is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Current assets divided by current liabilities
Explanation: C
Question 116
What does the quick ratio (acid test ratio) exclude from current assets?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: D — Prepayments and inventory
Explanation: D
Question 117
What does inventory days (inventory holding period) measure?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The average number of days inventory is held before being sold
Explanation: B
Question 118
Receivables days (debtor collection period) is calculated as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — (Trade receivables / Revenue) x 365
Explanation: A
Question 119
Payables days is calculated as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — (Trade payables / Cost of sales) x 365
Explanation: B
Question 120
Net profit margin is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Net profit after tax divided by revenue, expressed as a percentage
Every question on this page stays free and open either way.
Add Your Testimonial
Privacy Preference
We use cookies to enhance your browsing experience, serve personalized content, and analyze our traffic. By clicking "Accept All", you consent to our use of cookies on this platform.
Before you go, can we ask you one thing?
We are just getting started, and knowing what is holding you back would help us a lot. It takes about 20 seconds.
Overall rating
★★★★★
How likely are you to recommend us to a friend? (0 to 10)What is stopping you from creating a free account?
🎉
Thank you
We read every response. This is exactly how we make PCC better for you.
CCarr
Free assistant · no signup
Carr only reads what is public on PCC, plus your own practice progress.