Free ACCA Business and Technology Practice Questions & Answers
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Question 241
Which of the following describes a nomination committee in a listed company?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — It identifies and recommends candidates for board positions
Explanation: The nomination committee ensures the board has the right mix of skills and experience by recommending new director appointments. Financial planning, tax, and operations are managed elsewhere.
Question 242
Which of the following best describes inherent risk?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The risk that exists before any controls are put in place
Explanation: Inherent risk is the raw risk in a process or activity before management controls are applied. Residual risk is what remains after controls. Detection risk relates to auditing. Natural disasters are a type of external risk.
Question 243
Which of the following is a reputational risk for a business?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Negative press coverage following a product safety scandal
Explanation: Reputational risk arises from negative public perception — e.g. product recalls, scandals, or ethical failures. Interest rates, exchange rates, and tax changes are financial or economic risks.
Question 244
Which of the following best describes a conflict of interest in a corporate governance context?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A situation where a director personal interests could improperly influence their decision-making in their role
Explanation: A conflict of interest exists when a director or manager has a personal interest that could compromise their independent judgment. Disclosure and management of conflicts of interest are key governance requirements.
Question 245
Which of the following best describes a key risk indicator (KRI)?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A metric that signals when risk levels are approaching unacceptable thresholds, prompting early action
Explanation: KRIs are forward-looking metrics that give early warning when risks are increasing, enabling management to act before a problem becomes a loss. They differ from KPIs (which measure performance) and risk registers (which list risks).
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The purpose of a code of ethics for a professional body is to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Set out the principles and standards of behaviour expected of members to maintain public trust
Explanation: A professional code of ethics defines the values and behaviours expected of members — integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, competence — to protect the public and the profession reputation.
Question 247
Which of the following is an example of an environmental risk for a manufacturing business?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Regulatory fines or reputational damage resulting from pollution or environmental non-compliance
Explanation: Environmental risk covers potential harm from a business impact on the natural environment — pollution fines, clean-up costs, licence revocation, or reputational damage. Financial, demand, and operational risks are distinct.
Question 248
Under company law in many jurisdictions, directors have a legal duty to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Act in good faith in the best interests of the company and exercise reasonable care, skill, and diligence
Explanation: Directors owe legal duties to the company — acting in good faith, avoiding conflicts of interest, exercising skill and care, and promoting the success of the company. These fiduciary duties protect shareholders and other stakeholders.
Question 249
Which of the following is the correct order of steps in the risk management process?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Identify, assess, respond, monitor
Explanation: The standard risk management process is: Identify risks, Assess their likelihood and impact, Respond with appropriate strategies (avoid, reduce, transfer, accept), then Monitor ongoing risk levels and the effectiveness of controls.
Question 250
Accountability in corporate governance means:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Those in authority must be able to justify their decisions and actions to stakeholders
Explanation: Accountability requires directors and managers to answer for their decisions and actions. Shareholders, regulators, and other stakeholders hold them to account through reporting, AGMs, and governance mechanisms.
Question 251
Which of the following is the primary purpose of an Annual General Meeting (AGM)?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — To allow shareholders to receive reports, ask questions, and vote on key matters including director elections
Explanation: The AGM is the main forum for shareholder engagement — they receive financial reports, question directors, vote on resolutions (director appointments, dividends, auditor reappointment), and exercise their governance rights.
Question 252
Which of the following best describes residual risk?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The level of risk remaining after management controls have been implemented
Explanation: Residual risk is what remains after inherent risk has been reduced by controls. The objective of risk management is to reduce residual risk to an acceptable level, not necessarily to eliminate it entirely.
Question 253
Strategic risk refers to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The risk that high-level decisions, objectives, or strategies fail to achieve their intended outcomes
Explanation: Strategic risk is the risk that an organisation's strategies fail — e.g. entering the wrong market, a flawed acquisition, or missing a technological shift. Operational risk covers process failures; financial risk covers market or credit issues.
Question 254
Which of the following describes an independent director?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A director free from relationships or circumstances that could compromise objective judgment
Explanation: An independent director has no material relationship with the company that could bias their judgment — no significant shareholding, no family ties to management, no prior employment. Independence enables objective oversight.
Question 255
The risk appetite of an organisation refers to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The amount of risk an organisation is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives
Explanation: Risk appetite is the level and type of risk an organisation is prepared to accept or tolerate in pursuit of its strategic goals. A high risk appetite means willingness to accept more uncertainty for greater potential reward.
Question 256
Which of the following controls would best prevent an employee from processing fictitious supplier invoices?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Requiring that all new suppliers are independently verified and approved before any invoice is processed
Explanation: Preventive controls stop fraud before it occurs. Independently verifying new suppliers before processing their invoices prevents fictitious suppliers being created in the first place. Reconciliations and confirmations are detective controls.
Question 257
Anti-bribery legislation (such as the UK Bribery Act) requires organisations to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Have adequate procedures in place to prevent bribery by employees and associated persons
Explanation: Anti-bribery laws require organisations to implement proportionate anti-bribery procedures. Facilitation payments are often illegal under such laws. The focus is on adequate preventive procedures, not blanket bans on entertainment.
Question 258
Which of the following is an example of a financial risk?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Significant fluctuations in interest rates affecting the cost of borrowing
Explanation: Financial risk includes exposure to interest rate movements, currency fluctuations, credit risk, and liquidity risk. Process errors are operational risk. Fire is a physical/hazard risk. Competitor threats are strategic risk.
Question 259
The concept of due diligence in business refers to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A thorough investigation and assessment of a business or transaction before committing to it
Explanation: Due diligence involves a comprehensive investigation — financial, legal, operational — before making a significant decision such as a merger, acquisition, or investment. It reduces the risk of unpleasant post-decision surprises.
Question 260
A rapidly growing tech company removes several layers of middle management to improve communication speed. This is an example of:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Delayering
Explanation: Delayering involves removing management layers to create a flatter structure, improving communication speed and reducing overhead costs. Outsourcing contracts work externally. Offshoring relocates work geographically.
Question 261
A retail company contracts out its IT maintenance to a specialist firm while keeping its core retail operations in-house. This best describes:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Outsourcing
Explanation: Outsourcing involves contracting non-core activities to an external specialist. A virtual organisation uses IT to connect dispersed entities. Offshoring relocates operations to another country.
Question 262
A manufacturing firm gives regional managers full authority to make pricing and product decisions. This is an example of:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Delegation with full decentralisation
Explanation: Full authority to make key decisions at a lower level is decentralisation through delegation. Centralisation keeps decision-making at the top. Bureaucratic control uses rules and procedures.
Question 263
A professional services firm has a chief partner who holds most decision-making power, with other staff depending on personal relationships with this partner. This culture is best described as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Power culture
Explanation: Power culture (Handy) centres on a key powerful individual — like a spider web with the central power figure. Task culture is project-focused. Role culture is bureaucratic.
Question 264
A company's board sets a five-year growth strategy. Middle managers translate this into annual plans. Front-line supervisors manage daily production. This scenario illustrates:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Anthony's three management levels
Explanation: Anthony's hierarchy has strategic (board, long-term), tactical (middle managers, medium-term), and operational (supervisors, day-to-day) levels. Handy's Shamrock describes workforce types. Fayol's functions are management activities.
Question 265
A bank requires that the person who initiates a payment is different from the person who approves it. This is an example of:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Segregation of duties
Explanation: Segregation of duties ensures no single individual controls all stages of a transaction — a key preventive internal control reducing fraud. Risk transfer passes risk to others. Whistleblowing is reporting wrongdoing.
Question 266
An NGO helps communities in developing countries build schools. When prioritising its stakeholders — donors, local communities, and governments — it should:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Use a stakeholder mapping tool such as Mendelow's matrix to prioritise by power and interest
Explanation: Mendelow's matrix helps organisations prioritise stakeholder management based on each group's power and level of interest. All stakeholders deserve some level of consideration, though the approach varies by quadrant.
Question 267
A company discovers that its finance manager both raises purchase orders and authorises payments. The internal auditor flags this as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A segregation of duties weakness
Explanation: When one person controls multiple stages of a transaction, segregation of duties is absent — a significant control weakness increasing fraud risk. Good delegation assigns authority while maintaining checks and balances.
Question 268
A new manager tells her team exactly what to do and monitors them closely, giving little opportunity for input. This leadership style is best described as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Autocratic
Explanation: An autocratic style involves the leader making decisions alone, issuing directives, and closely supervising. Laissez-faire delegates most decisions. Democratic involves team input. Transformational inspires through vision.
Question 269
An employee is promoted and given a salary increase, but still feels demotivated because his contributions are not recognised publicly. According to Herzberg, this is because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The pay rise is a hygiene factor; he requires motivators such as recognition
Explanation: Herzberg: Pay is a hygiene factor — its presence prevents dissatisfaction but does not motivate. Recognition is a motivator. Since recognition is absent, the employee is not motivated despite the pay rise.
Question 270
A project team is in constant conflict — members are challenging each other's ideas and there is tension about roles. According to Tuckman, this team is most likely in which stage?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Storming
Explanation: Storming is characterised by conflict, competition, and power struggles as team members assert themselves. Forming is the polite initial stage. Norming is establishing cohesion. Performing is high-functioning teamwork.
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