Free ACCA Business and Technology Practice Questions & Answers
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Question 181
The purpose of an assessment centre in recruitment is to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Evaluate candidates through a variety of exercises (tests, simulations, interviews) to predict job performance
Explanation: Assessment centres use multiple exercises — role plays, group discussions, psychometric tests, interviews — observed by trained assessors to give a rounded, reliable assessment of candidate suitability.
Question 182
Which of the following is a disadvantage of external recruitment?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Higher cost and longer time to settle into the role
Explanation: External recruitment is more expensive (advertising, agency fees) and external candidates take longer to become effective. However, it brings new skills and perspectives unavailable internally.
Question 183
Accountability in a management context means:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A manager is answerable for the results of the work delegated to their team
Explanation: Accountability means a manager remains answerable for outcomes even when tasks are delegated. Delegation transfers authority and responsibility to a subordinate, but the manager retains accountability to their own superiors.
Question 184
Which of the following is a characteristic of laissez-faire leadership?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Minimal direction, with subordinates given freedom to make their own decisions
Explanation: Laissez-faire (hands-off) leadership delegates decisions to the team with minimal interference. It works best with highly skilled, motivated, and experienced teams. It is not about micromanagement or rigid rules.
Question 185
The concept of emotional intelligence was popularised primarily by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Daniel Goleman
Explanation: Daniel Goleman popularised emotional intelligence, identifying five components: self-awareness, self-regulation, motivation, empathy, and social skills. Taylor focused on scientific management; Fayol on management functions; Maslow on needs.
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Which of the following best describes extrinsic motivation?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Motivation driven by external rewards such as pay, bonuses, or recognition from others
Explanation: Extrinsic motivation comes from outside the individual — pay, promotions, awards. Intrinsic motivation comes from within — personal satisfaction, interest, and sense of achievement.
Question 187
Elton Mayo's Hawthorne Studies concluded that:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Workers are motivated by social factors, attention from management, and belonging to a group
Explanation: The Hawthorne Studies showed that productivity improved when workers felt observed and valued, highlighting the importance of social relationships, group dynamics, and management attention — not just pay or physical conditions.
Question 188
Which of the following is an advantage of internal recruitment?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Lower cost, faster process, and the candidate already knows the organisation
Explanation: Internal recruitment is typically cheaper and faster, and the candidate is already familiar with culture and systems. However, it limits diversity of ideas and creates a vacancy elsewhere in the organisation.
Question 189
Coaching as a development method involves:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A more experienced person supporting an individual's development through guidance and feedback on performance
Explanation: Coaching is a personalised, ongoing development process where a coach provides feedback, asks questions, and guides the coachee's performance improvement. It differs from formal training and mentoring.
Question 190
Authority in an organisation refers to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The formally granted right to make decisions and give instructions
Explanation: Authority is the formal, legitimate right to direct others and make decisions within a defined scope. It differs from power (broader ability to influence) and informal influence.
Question 191
Job rotation as a motivational and development technique involves:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Moving an employee between different jobs at a similar level to broaden skills and reduce monotony
Explanation: Job rotation moves employees through different roles at the same level, building skills and reducing boredom. Job enrichment adds depth (more responsibility). Job enlargement adds breadth (more tasks at same level).
Question 192
Which of the following best describes mentoring?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A longer-term relationship where a more experienced person supports another's career development and personal growth
Explanation: Mentoring is a longer-term, relationship-based development approach where an experienced mentor shares knowledge, guidance, and career advice. It differs from coaching (performance-focused) and training (skills-focused).
Question 193
Succession planning in an organisation refers to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Identifying and developing employees to fill key leadership and critical roles in the future
Explanation: Succession planning ensures the organisation identifies and prepares internal talent to fill critical positions when they become vacant, reducing dependence on external recruitment and protecting continuity.
Question 194
Time management in a professional context primarily involves:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Prioritising tasks effectively to achieve goals within available time
Explanation: Effective time management involves planning, prioritising, and organising tasks to achieve objectives efficiently. Working excessive hours, delegating everything, or eliminating all non-urgent tasks are not balanced approaches.
Question 195
Which of the following best describes the Urgent-Important (Eisenhower) Matrix?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A framework for prioritising tasks by urgency and importance
Explanation: The Eisenhower Matrix categorises tasks into four quadrants based on urgency and importance, helping individuals decide what to do immediately, schedule, delegate, or eliminate.
Question 196
Continuing Professional Development (CPD) refers to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Ongoing learning and development to maintain and enhance professional competence throughout a career
Explanation: CPD is the ongoing process of learning and improving skills throughout a professional's career. It is not initial training, a single exam, or employer-only. Professionals are often responsible for managing their own CPD.
Question 197
Which of the following is an example of effective personal communication in a professional setting?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Tailoring the message clearly to the recipient's needs and choosing an appropriate channel
Explanation: Effective communication means selecting the right message, medium, and tone for the audience. Overloading with information, rigid channel preference, and inappropriate jargon are all barriers.
Question 198
Stress in the workplace can be managed through:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Identifying causes, prioritising workload, seeking support, and building resilience
Explanation: Stress management involves recognising stressors, managing workload, seeking support, developing coping strategies, and building resilience.
Question 199
Which of the following best describes a SMART objective?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — An objective that is Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound
Explanation: SMART objectives are Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound. Vague, rigid, or top-down-only objectives do not meet SMART criteria.
Question 200
Emotional intelligence (EI) in a professional context refers to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The ability to recognise, understand, manage, and use emotions effectively in oneself and others
Explanation: Emotional intelligence includes self-awareness, self-regulation, motivation, empathy, and social skills. High EI professionals manage relationships and emotions well. It is not about suppressing emotions or being purely analytical.
Question 201
The communication process involves which key elements?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Sender, message, medium, receiver, and feedback
Explanation: The communication process: Sender encodes message, which travels through a medium, is decoded by the receiver, who provides feedback. Budget, profit, tasks, and strategy are not core elements of the communication model.
Question 202
Which of the following is a barrier to effective communication?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Perceptual filters and preconceptions distorting the message
Explanation: Perceptual filters — preconceptions, stereotypes, emotional states — distort how messages are encoded and decoded. Clear language, active listening, and appropriate channels facilitate communication.
Question 203
Formal communication in an organisation flows:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Through officially established channels such as reports, memos, and meetings
Explanation: Formal communication uses official channels — reports, official memos, structured meetings, email chains. It can flow upward, downward, or laterally. Informal communication uses the grapevine.
Question 204
Upward communication in an organisation refers to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Messages flowing from employees to management such as feedback, reports, and complaints
Explanation: Upward communication travels from subordinates to management — feedback, suggestions, performance data, and complaints. Downward is management to employees. Horizontal is peer-to-peer.
Question 205
Active listening involves:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Fully concentrating, understanding, responding, and retaining what is said
Explanation: Active listening means giving full attention — understanding verbal and non-verbal cues, asking clarifying questions, paraphrasing, and remembering. Passive or selective listening and multitasking reduce effectiveness.
Question 206
Non-verbal communication includes:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Body language, facial expressions, tone of voice, and gestures
Explanation: Non-verbal communication encompasses body language, facial expressions, eye contact, gestures, posture, and tone of voice. Written and spoken content is verbal communication.
Question 207
Which communication channel is most appropriate for a complex, sensitive message requiring discussion?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A face-to-face meeting
Explanation: Complex, sensitive messages require rich, interactive channels like face-to-face meetings, where tone, body language, and immediate feedback support understanding.
Question 208
The grapevine in organisational communication refers to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Informal networks through which unofficial information spreads among employees
Explanation: The grapevine is the informal communication network through which rumours and unofficial information spread. It operates alongside the formal communication structure.
Question 209
Which of the following best describes assertive communication?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Clearly and confidently expressing your needs and views while respecting others
Explanation: Assertive communication involves expressing yourself clearly and respectfully, standing your ground without aggression. Aggressive communication disregards others; passive communication avoids expressing needs.
Question 210
Lateral (horizontal) communication in an organisation occurs:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Between individuals or departments at the same organisational level
Explanation: Lateral communication happens between peers or departments at the same level — for coordination, collaboration, and sharing information. Downward flows from top to bottom; upward from bottom to top.
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