Free FRM Quantitative Analysis Practice Questions & Answers
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Question 271
Wrong-way risk in derivatives refers to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The situation where credit exposure to a counterparty is positively correlated with the probability of counterparty default
Explanation: B
Question 272
Credit Value Adjustment (CVA) represents:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The market value adjustment to reflect the risk that a derivative counterparty may default, reducing the value of the derivative position
Explanation: B
Question 273
The Basel probability of default (PD) floor for retail mortgage exposures under IRB is designed to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Prevent PD estimates from being set artificially low during good economic times, ensuring minimum prudence in credit risk modelling
Explanation: B
Question 274
The CDS premium (spread) is approximately equal to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The expected annual loss: PD × LGD for small PD values
Explanation: B
Question 275
A collateralised debt obligation (CDO) tranches credit risk by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Structuring the portfolio into tranches (equity, mezzanine, senior) with different priorities for absorbing losses — equity bears first losses, senior tranche bears last
Explanation: B
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The risk contribution of an asset to portfolio VaR is computed using:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The marginal VaR multiplied by the asset's weight, reflecting the asset's contribution to portfolio risk considering diversification effects
Explanation: B
Question 277
The credit triangle relates the CDS spread to PD and LGD approximately as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — CDS Spread ≈ PD × LGD (for small PD and continuous compounding)
Explanation: B
Question 278
Wrong-way risk (WWR) arises in which of the following situations?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A bank buys CDS protection on sovereign bonds from a domestic bank in the same country — if the sovereign defaults, the domestic bank is also likely to fail
Explanation: B
Question 279
Under Basel II, the Loss Given Default (LGD) in the Advanced IRB approach reflects:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Bank's own estimates based on historical recovery experience, collateral values, seniority, and economic conditions — subject to a downturn LGD floor that captures higher losses during economic stress
Explanation: B
Question 280
Credit VaR (Credit Value at Risk) measures:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The unexpected credit loss at a high confidence level (e.g., 99.9%) over a given horizon — the loss that is exceeded with only 0.1% probability — used to determine economic capital for credit risk
Explanation: B
Question 281
The rating transition matrix provides:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The probability of moving from one credit rating to another (or defaulting) over a given horizon, typically one year, based on historical rating migrations
Explanation: B
Question 282
A credit linked note (CLN) embeds:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A credit default swap into a note structure, where the issuer retains the CDS premium as additional yield but the investor absorbs credit losses on the reference entity if a credit event occurs
Explanation: B
Question 283
The internal ratings-based (IRB) approach to credit risk under Basel computes risk-weighted assets using:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The bank's own PD estimates (and for Advanced IRB: LGD, EAD, M) combined with the regulatory capital formula derived from the ASRF (Asymptotic Single Risk Factor) model, producing capital sensitive to individual borrower creditworthiness
Explanation: B
Question 284
The hazard rate (default intensity) λ in a reduced-form credit model represents:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The instantaneous conditional probability of default at time t given survival to time t — with survival probability P(no default by T) = e^{-λT} for constant λ
Explanation: B
Question 285
The Basel II Internal Ratings Based (IRB) approach requires banks to estimate:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — PD, LGD, EAD, and maturity (M) internally for Advanced IRB, with supervisors providing LGD/EAD for Foundation IRB
Explanation: B
Question 286
Correlation in a credit portfolio matters because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Higher correlation reduces diversification benefit and increases the probability of joint defaults
Explanation: A
Question 287
The Gaussian Copula model used in CDO pricing was criticised during the 2008 crisis because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — It used a single correlation parameter to model joint defaults, underestimating the probability of widespread simultaneous defaults (tail dependence) during systemic stress
Explanation: B
Question 288
Potential future exposure (PFE) in counterparty credit risk:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Represents the high percentile (e.g., 95th or 97.5th) of the distribution of future credit exposure at a specified future date, used to set credit limits
Explanation: B
Question 289
The KMV/Moody's structural approach to credit risk estimates:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Distance to Default (DD) = (Asset value - Default threshold) / (Asset volatility × Asset value), using equity market prices and volatility to infer asset values via Merton model
Explanation: B
Question 290
Netting in OTC derivatives reduces credit exposure by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Allowing the replacement cost of a defaulted counterparty to be calculated as the net of positive and negative MTM values across all contracts in a netting set, rather than the gross sum of positive values only
Explanation: B
Question 291
Under Basel III, the Standardised Approach for Counterparty Credit Risk (SA-CCR) calculates:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Exposure at Default (EAD) for OTC derivatives as Replacement Cost + Potential Future Exposure, with PFE computed using standardised supervisory factors based on asset class and maturity
Explanation: B
Question 292
The probability of default under the risk-neutral measure differs from the real-world (physical) measure because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The risk-neutral PD includes both the actual default probability and a credit risk premium, making risk-neutral PD higher than physical PD for investment-grade borrowers. Market-implied (risk-neutral) PDs from CDS spreads are used for pricing; historical (physical) PDs are used for expected loss estimation.
Explanation: B
Question 293
Structural credit models (Merton type) differ from reduced-form models in that:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Structural models tie default explicitly to the firm's asset value falling below the debt level (observable economic mechanism), while reduced-form models treat default as a surprise event governed by a hazard rate process, without modelling the underlying cause
Explanation: B
Question 294
Credit Value Adjustment (CVA) and Debt Value Adjustment (DVA) are related because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — CVA is the cost to the buyer of a derivative from counterparty default risk; DVA is the 'benefit' recognised by the seller from their own credit risk (others discount the seller's future payments for their default risk). CVA + DVA = Bilateral CVA (BCVA), with DVA being controversial as it implies benefiting from own credit deterioration.
Explanation: B
Question 295
The Basel III output floor requires that:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Risk-weighted assets (RWA) computed using internal models cannot be less than 72.5% of RWA computed using the standardised approach, preventing excessive model-driven RWA reduction
Explanation: B
Question 296
Recovery swaps allow trading of:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The recovery rate on a defaulted reference entity — the buyer of recovery risk receives the actual recovery at default and pays a fixed recovery rate (the recovery swap rate), allowing separation of recovery rate uncertainty from default probability in credit pricing
Explanation: B
Question 297
The base correlation methodology for CDO tranche pricing:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Maps each tranche to an equivalent equity tranche correlation that produces the market-observed tranche price — allowing construction of a correlation surface across attachment points, analogous to the implied volatility surface in equity options
Explanation: B
Question 298
Basis risk in hedging refers to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The risk that the hedge instrument's price does not move in perfect tandem with the exposure being hedged, leaving residual risk
Explanation: B
Question 299
Dollar convexity is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — P × Convexity, giving the dollar sensitivity of the price-yield relationship for large yield changes
Explanation: B
Question 300
Interest rate risk can be decomposed into:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Parallel shift risk (level), slope risk (steepening/flattening), and curvature risk (butterfly), measured using principal components or key rate durations
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