Free CFA Financial Statement Analysis Practice Questions & Answers
900 exam-style Financial Statement Analysis questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
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Question 691
Goodwill impairment losses are:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Not reversible under either framework
Explanation: Why C is correct: Neither GAAP nor IFRS allows reversal of goodwill impairment. Why others are wrong: A and B contradict standards. D is incorrect; goodwill is not amortized.
Question 692
Derivatives derive their value from:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Underlying variables
Explanation: Why B is correct: Derivatives depend on underlying factors like rates or prices. Why others are wrong: A, C, and D do not determine derivative value.
Question 693
A key characteristic of derivatives is that they:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Require little or no initial investment
Explanation: Why B is correct: Derivatives typically require minimal initial investment. Why others are wrong: A contradicts the definition. C is not required. D is false.
Question 694
Under IFRS, financial assets measured at amortized cost must also:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Be held to collect contractual cash flows
Explanation: Why B is correct: Business model must be “hold to collect.” Why others are wrong: A applies to fair value through profit or loss. C is not required. D is prohibited.
Question 695
Under US GAAP, the category similar to IFRS amortized cost is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Held-to-maturity
Explanation: Why B is correct: HTM uses amortized cost. Why others are wrong: A and C use fair value. D is elective.
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Under US GAAP, available-for-sale securities record unrealized gains/losses in:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Other comprehensive income
Explanation: Why B is correct: AFS unrealized gains/losses go to OCI. Why others are wrong: A applies to trading securities. C is not used directly. D is irrelevant.
Question 697
Deferred tax liabilities arise when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Accounting income exceeds taxable income
Explanation: Why B is correct: DTLs arise when taxes payable now are lower than tax expense. Why others are wrong: A creates deferred tax assets. C does not create DTLs. D does not create temporary differences.
Question 698
Liquidity refers to a company’s ability to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Pay short-term obligations
Explanation: Why B is correct: Liquidity focuses on short-term commitments. Why others are wrong: A is solvency. C and D are unrelated.
Question 699
Solvency refers to a company’s ability to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Meet long-term obligations
Explanation: Why B is correct: Solvency concerns long-term financial commitments. Why others are wrong: A is liquidity. C and D are unrelated.
Question 700
A derivative is recognized when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The entity becomes a party to the contract
Explanation: Why B is correct: Recognition occurs when contractual rights/obligations begin. Why others are wrong: A and C are not recognition triggers. D affects valuation, not recognition.
Question 701
Amortized cost equals initial recognition:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Minus principal repayments and plus/minus amortization
Explanation: Why B is correct: Amortized cost adjusts for repayments and amortization. Why others are wrong: A and C apply to fair value. D is incomplete.
Question 702
A financial asset measured at fair value through OCI under IFRS typically has:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — SPPI cash flows and a hold-to-collect-and-sell model
Explanation: Why A is correct: FVOCI applies to SPPI assets held to collect and sell. Why others are wrong: B is amortized cost. C is FVTPL. D is incomplete.
Question 703
A company that capitalizes an acquired trademark must subsequently:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Amortize it only if it has a finite life
Explanation: Why B is correct: Finite-life intangibles are amortized; indefinite-life intangibles are not. Why others are wrong: A contradicts capitalization rules. C ignores the finite/indefinite distinction. D is prohibited under GAAP.
Question 704
Under IFRS, equity investments not held for trading are generally measured at:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Fair value through OCI
Explanation: Why B is correct: IFRS allows FVOCI designation for equity investments not held for trading. Why others are wrong: A is not allowed for equity. C applies to trading assets. D is not permitted.
Question 705
Under US GAAP, equity securities are generally measured at:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Fair value through net income
Explanation: Why B is correct: GAAP requires equity securities to be measured at fair value with changes in net income. Why others are wrong: A and D are not permitted. C is not allowed for equity.
Question 706
Liquidity analysis focuses on:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Short-term obligations
Explanation: Why B is correct: Liquidity concerns short-term commitments. Why others are wrong: A is solvency. C and D are unrelated.
Question 707
Solvency analysis focuses on:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Long-term obligations
Explanation: Why B is correct: Solvency concerns long-term financial commitments. Why others are wrong: A is liquidity. C and D are unrelated.
Question 708
A financial asset measured at FVOCI under IFRS typically has:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — SPPI cash flows and a hold-to-collect-and-sell model
Explanation: Why A is correct: FVOCI applies to SPPI assets held to collect and sell. Why others are wrong: B is amortized cost. C is FVTPL. D is incomplete.
Question 709
The income statement is considered a “flow” statement because it:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Measures activity occurring between two balance sheet dates
Explanation: Why B is correct: Income statements capture revenues, expenses, gains, and losses over time. Why others are wrong: A describes the balance sheet. C and D are incorrect; accrual accounting includes both cash and non-cash items.
Question 710
The statement of cash flows classifies cash movements into:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Operating, investing, and financing activities
Explanation: Why A is correct: Cash flows are grouped into operating, investing, and financing. Why others are wrong: B and C describe other statements. D is a balance sheet classification.
Question 711
The statement of shareholders’ equity is considered a flow statement because it:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Shows changes in equity accounts over time
Explanation: Why B is correct: It tracks changes in equity components between balance sheet dates. Why others are wrong: A is incorrect. C and D are only parts of equity changes.
Question 712
Under accrual accounting, revenue in excess of cash collections results in:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Higher accounts receivable
Explanation: Why B is correct: Revenue recognized before cash collection increases receivables. Why others are wrong: A is opposite. C arises when cash is received before revenue. D is unrelated.
Question 713
When cash paid for expenses exceeds the accrual-based expense, the result is typically:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Decrease in accounts payable
Explanation: Why B is correct: Paying more cash than the accrued expense reduces payables. Why others are wrong: A is opposite. C and D are unrelated.
Question 714
Deferred revenue is derecognized when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The company satisfies its performance obligation
Explanation: Why B is correct: Revenue is recognized when performance occurs, reducing the liability. Why others are wrong: A creates the liability. C may require refunding but does not recognize revenue. D does not affect deferred revenue.
Question 715
Under the indirect method, depreciation is added back to net income because it:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Is a non-cash expense
Explanation: Why B is correct: Depreciation reduces net income but does not use cash. Why others are wrong: A is false. C and D are unrelated.
Question 716
Under the indirect method, an increase in accounts receivable is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Subtracted from net income
Explanation: Why B is correct: More receivables mean less cash collected → reduce operating cash flow. Why others are wrong: A is opposite. C is incorrect. D misclassifies the adjustment.
Question 717
Under the indirect method, a decrease in inventory is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Added to net income
Explanation: Why A is correct: Lower inventory implies fewer cash outflows for purchases. Why others are wrong: B is opposite. C is incorrect. D misclassifies.
Question 718
Under the indirect method, an increase in accounts payable is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Added to net income
Explanation: Why A is correct: Higher payables mean expenses recognized without cash outflow → increase operating cash flow. Why others are wrong: B is opposite. C is incorrect. D misclassifies.
Question 719
A gain on sale of equipment is subtracted from net income in the indirect method because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — It is a non-cash gain included in net income
Explanation: Why B is correct: Gains increase net income but are not operating cash flows. Why others are wrong: A is true but irrelevant to operating adjustments. C and D misclassify.
Question 720
A loss on sale of equipment is added back to net income because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — It is a non-cash loss included in net income
Explanation: Why B is correct: Losses reduce net income but do not reduce operating cash. Why others are wrong: A is incorrect. C and D misclassify.
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