Free CFA Financial Statement Analysis Practice Questions & Answers
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Question 661
A company with a simple capital structure:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Has no potentially dilutive securities
Explanation: Why A is correct: Simple structures have only common stock and no dilutive instruments. Why others are wrong: B applies only to complex structures. C and D apply only when dilutive instruments exist.
Question 662
A company with convertible debt has a:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Complex capital structure
Explanation: Why B is correct: Convertible debt creates potential dilution → complex structure. Why others are wrong: A is incorrect. C ignores dilution. D is incomplete; diluted EPS is required.
Question 663
Under the if-converted method, additional shares from conversion are added to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The denominator only
Explanation: Why B is correct: Conversion increases shares outstanding → denominator increases. Why others are wrong: A is incorrect; numerator adjusts only for interest/dividends. C is incorrect because numerator does not include shares. D contradicts the method.
Question 664
When determining diluted EPS, options are included only if:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Exercise price is below market price
Explanation: Why B is correct: Options are dilutive only when “in the money.” Why others are wrong: A makes them antidilutive. C excludes them. D does not determine dilution.
Question 665
Capitalized software development costs occur:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — After feasibility
Explanation: Why B is correct: Standards require capitalization after technological feasibility. Why others are wrong: A must be expensed. C is not required. D is too narrow.
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A company that expenses nearly all development costs likely:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Establishes feasibility late
Explanation: Why B is correct: Late feasibility → most costs expensed. Why others are wrong: A would increase capitalization. C contradicts the scenario. D is irrelevant.
Question 667
Gains from selling a business unit are classified as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Discontinued operations if criteria are met
Explanation: Why B is correct: Disposal of a component meeting criteria is reported as discontinued operations. Why others are wrong: A is incorrect. C no longer exists under GAAP/IFRS. D is incorrect.
Question 668
A discontinued operation must be:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Both physically and operationally separable
Explanation: Why C is correct: Standards require both physical and operational separability. Why others are wrong: A and B are incomplete. D contradicts the definition.
Question 669
Presenting discontinued operations separately primarily helps analysts to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Distinguish ongoing performance from segments that have been exited
Explanation: Why B is correct: Separate presentation isolates the results of businesses that will not continue, improving clarity and comparability of the company’s ongoing operations. Why others are wrong: A is incorrect because separate reporting does not increase earnings. C is incorrect because tax effects are not the purpose of the presentation. D is incorrect because restructuring charges may still appear in continuing operations if they relate to ongoing activities.
Question 670
A company that restates prior-year financial statements due to a change in accounting principle is applying:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Retrospective application
Explanation: Why B is correct: Retrospective application restates all comparative periods as if the new principle had always been used. Why others are wrong: A adjusts only future periods. C is unrelated to accounting changes. D applies to valuation, not accounting principle changes.
Question 671
When a company satisfies a performance obligation over time, revenue is recognized:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — As control transfers progressively
Explanation: Why C is correct: Over-time obligations require revenue recognition as control transfers. Why others are wrong: A violates accrual accounting. B applies to point-in-time transfers. D contradicts over-time recognition.
Question 672
Which cost is most likely a product cost?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Factory machine operator wages
Explanation: Why A is correct: Direct labor for manufacturing is a product cost. Why others are wrong: B and C are period costs. D is expensed as incurred.
Question 673
Which cost is most likely a period cost?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Administrative salaries
Explanation: Why C is correct: Administrative salaries are expensed as incurred. Why others are wrong: A and B are product costs. D is part of inventory cost.
Question 674
When capitalized interest is later expensed through depreciation, it affects:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Operating income
Explanation: Why A is correct: Depreciation reduces operating income. Why others are wrong: B and C are unrelated. D is incorrect.
Question 675
When analyzing interest coverage, an analyst should adjust earnings by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Adding back both expensed and capitalized interest
Explanation: Why C is correct: Total interest burden includes both expensed and capitalized interest. Why others are wrong: A and B omit part of the cost. D is incorrect.
Question 676
Under IFRS, interest paid may be classified as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Operating or financing
Explanation: Why C is correct: IFRS allows classification flexibility. Why others are wrong: A is GAAP only. B and D are too restrictive.
Question 677
Unusual or infrequent items under GAAP are presented:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Within continuing operations but separately
Explanation: Why B is correct: GAAP includes them in continuing operations with separate presentation. Why others are wrong: A is outdated. C applies to discontinued operations. D is incomplete.
Question 678
Results of discontinued operations are presented:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Separately on a net basis
Explanation: Why C is correct: Discontinued operations appear separately, net of tax. Why others are wrong: A and B are incorrect. D is incomplete.
Question 679
Basic EPS uses which numerator?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Net income minus preferred dividends
Explanation: Why B is correct: Preferred dividends reduce income available to common shareholders. Why others are wrong: A ignores preferred dividends. C is incorrect. D is unrelated.
Question 680
Under the if-converted method for convertible preferred stock, the numerator increases because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Preferred dividends are added back
Explanation: Why B is correct: Conversion eliminates preferred dividends. Why others are wrong: A applies to convertible debt. C and D are irrelevant.
Question 681
Under the if-converted method for convertible debt, the numerator increases by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — After-tax interest expense
Explanation: Why B is correct: Conversion eliminates interest, so after-tax interest is added back. Why others are wrong: A ignores taxes. C applies to preferred stock. D is unrelated.
Question 682
Under the treasury stock method, incremental shares equal:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Shares issued minus shares repurchased
Explanation: Why A is correct: Incremental shares = new shares – repurchased shares. Why others are wrong: B is incorrect mathematically. C and D ignore the net effect.
Question 683
Options are dilutive only when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Exercise price < market price
Explanation: Why B is correct: Options are dilutive only when “in the money.” Why others are wrong: A makes them antidilutive. C produces no dilution. D does not determine dilution.
Question 684
Net profit margin measures:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Profit per dollar of revenue
Explanation: Why B is correct: Net margin = net income / revenue. Why others are wrong: A is unrelated. C is ROA. D is ROE.
Question 685
Gross profit margin measures:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Profit after cost of goods sold
Explanation: Why C is correct: Gross profit = revenue – COGS. Why others are wrong: A is net income. B is operating income. D is after-tax income.
Question 686
A company with no potentially dilutive securities has a:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Simple capital structure
Explanation: Why A is correct: Simple structures have only common stock. Why others are wrong: B requires dilutive instruments. C and D are not standard terms.
Question 687
The purpose of presenting discontinued operations separately is to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Improve comparability of continuing operations
Explanation: Why B is correct: Separate presentation isolates continuing operations for analysis. Why others are wrong: A, C, and D are not the purpose.
Question 688
Retrospective application improves:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Comparability
Explanation: Why B is correct: Restating prior periods enhances comparability across years. Why others are wrong: A, C, and D are not directly affected.
Question 689
When a company changes an accounting principle, the notes must disclose:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — The nature, justification, and effect of the change
Explanation: Why C is correct: Standards require disclosure of nature, justification, and financial impact. Why others are wrong: A and B are incomplete. D is incorrect; materiality must be evaluated, but disclosure is required when relevant.
Question 690
Internally generated brands and customer lists are typically:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Expensed under both IFRS and GAAP
Explanation: Why C is correct: Both frameworks require expensing internally generated intangibles. Why others are wrong: A and B contradict standards. D is not a recognition rule.
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