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Free Questions › CFA › Corporate Issuers
Free CFA Corporate Issuers Practice Questions & Answers
900 exam-style Corporate Issuers questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
100% free · No login to startQuestion 121
A firm considers paying for an acquisition entirely in stock to preserve its credit rating. Which trade‑off becomes most relevant?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Higher shareholder dilution
Explanation: B: Stock financing preserves credit rating but dilutes ownership. A applies to debt financing. C, D unrelated.
Question 122
A firm calculates a bottom‑up beta for a conglomerate. Which step is essential?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Weighting industry betas by revenue or asset share
Explanation: B: Conglomerate beta = weighted sum of segment betas. A, C, D incorrect.
Question 123
A company evaluates a project in a country with capital controls. Which WACC adjustment is required?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Add a sovereign ceiling constraint
Explanation: B: Capital controls → sovereign ceiling affects credit risk. A, C, D inappropriate.
Question 124
A firm with USD functional currency evaluates a project generating EUR cash flows. Which WACC approach is correct?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Use EUR WACC and discount EUR cash flows
Explanation: B: Currency of cash flows = currency of discount rate. A, C, D violate consistency.
Question 125
A company with structural subordination issues debt at the parent level. Which effect is most likely?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Higher cost of debt
Explanation: B: Parent‑level debt is structurally subordinated → higher spreads. A, C, D incorrect.
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Question 126
A bank with rising ESG governance concerns sees its credit spreads widen. Which mechanism explains this?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Higher perceived default probability
Explanation: B: Governance failures → higher default risk → wider spreads. A, C, D incorrect.
Question 127
A firm with strong ESG social practices sees lower employee turnover. Which valuation effect is most direct?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Higher operating margins
Explanation: B: Lower turnover → lower hiring/training costs → higher margins. A, C, D less direct.
Question 128
A firm evaluates a project with cash flows in a high‑inflation country. Which discount rate is appropriate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Nominal rate in project currency
Explanation: C: Nominal cash flows → nominal discount rate in same currency. A, B, D inconsistent.
Question 129
A company’s WACC must incorporate sovereign ceiling effects. Which component is directly adjusted?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Both cost of equity and cost of debt
Explanation: C: Sovereign ceiling affects both equity and debt risk. A, B, D incomplete.
Question 130
A company with high ESG governance scores negotiates new debt. Which term is most likely improved?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Lower credit spread
Explanation: C: Governance strength → lower spreads. A, B, D incorrect.
Question 131
A firm with structural subordination issues debt at an operating subsidiary instead of the parent. Which effect is most likely?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Higher recovery rate for lenders
Explanation: B: Subsidiary debt has priority → higher recovery → lower spreads. A, C, D incorrect.
Question 132
A company with strong ESG environmental practices receives a lower terminal discount rate. Which mechanism explains this?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Lower long‑term regulatory risk
Explanation: A: Lower regulatory risk → lower long‑term discount rate. B, C, D unrelated.
Question 133
A firm evaluates a project with cash flows in a currency expected to depreciate. Which adjustment is required?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Lower cash flow forecasts
Explanation: C: Depreciation reduces real cash flow value → adjust forecasts. A, B, D incorrect.
Question 134
Term structure and forward rates A default‑free zero‑coupon yield curve (annual compounding) is: - Year 1: 3.0% - Year 2: 3.6% - Year 3: 4.2% The 2‑year par coupon bond (annual coupon, maturity 2 years) is priced at 99.4 per 100 of par. Which of the following is most consistent with no‑arbitrage?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The 3‑year spot rate is mispriced; it should be higher.
Explanation: Using the given spot rates, the theoretical price of the 2‑year par bond exceeds 99.4, implying the market discounting is stronger than implied by the curve. That is consistent with a higher true 3‑year (and intermediate forward) rate, not lower short rates.
Question 135
HPR vs. YTM under reinvestment risk An investor buys a 5‑year 6% annual coupon bond at par, holds it for 3 years, and sells it at a yield of 4%. Coupons are reinvested at 2% annually. Which statement is most accurate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — HPR < 6% because reinvestment rate is below the YTM at purchase.
Explanation: The original YTM (6%) assumes reinvestment at 6%. Actual reinvestment at 2% drags HPR below 6%, even though the sale yield is lower than the coupon rate.
Question 136
Gordon growth and sensitivity For a stable firm, (P_0 = \frac{D_1}{r-g}). If the required return increases by 50 bps and the growth rate decreases by 50 bps, which is most accurate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Price falls more from the decrease in (g) than from the increase in (r).
Explanation: Both (r) and (g) affect the denominator, but (g) also affects the numerator via (D_1). A lower (g) reduces both numerator and denominator advantage, typically causing a larger negative impact than a similar change in (r).
Question 137
Multifactor model interpretation A two‑factor model: [ R_i = 2% + 0.8F_1 + 1.2F_2 + \epsilon_i. ] Expected factor realizations are (E(F_1)=4%), (E(F_2)=3%). The stock’s expected return is 8.5%. Which is most accurate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — The stock has positive alpha.
Explanation: [ E(R_i) = 2% + 0.8(4%) + 1.2(3%) = 2% + 3.2% + 3.6% = 8.8%. ] Model‑implied is 8.8%, but actual is 8.5%—so alpha is −0.3%. Wait—question says “stock’s expected return is 8.5%” (market expectation). Model says 8.8% required. Market expects less than required → price too high → negative alpha. Correct choice is B.
Question 138
Hypothesis test and p‑value A test statistic under (H_0) follows a standard normal distribution. The observed value is 2.1. For a two‑tailed test at 5% significance, which is most accurate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Reject (H_0); p‑value ≈ 0.036.
Explanation: For (Z=2.1), one‑tail area ≈ 0.018; two‑tail p‑value ≈ 0.036 < 0.05 → reject (H_0).
Question 139
Type I vs. Type II error A manager tests whether a strategy’s alpha is zero. She sets (\alpha=1%) (significance level). Which statement is most accurate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — She reduces Type I error but increases Type II error.
Explanation: Lower significance level reduces probability of rejecting a true (H_0) (Type I), but makes it harder to detect a false (H_0), increasing Type II error.
Question 140
Heteroskedasticity in regression In a cross‑sectional regression of returns on firm characteristics, residuals show variance increasing with firm size. OLS estimates remain unbiased, but standard errors are inconsistent. Which correction is most appropriate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Use heteroskedasticity‑robust (White) standard errors with OLS.
Explanation: Heteroskedasticity with no autocorrelation is typically addressed by OLS with heteroskedasticity‑robust (White) standard errors.
Question 141
Autocorrelation and t‑tests In a time‑series regression, residuals show positive first‑order autocorrelation. If uncorrected, which is most likely?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Standard errors understated, t‑stats overstated.
Explanation: With positive autocorrelation, OLS coefficients remain unbiased (under standard assumptions), but standard errors are underestimated, inflating t‑statistics.
Question 142
Unit root and spurious regression Two macro time series are non‑stationary with unit roots and are not cointegrated. A regression of one on the other yields high (R^2) and significant t‑stats. Which is most accurate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The regression is spurious; standard inference is invalid.
Explanation: Non‑stationary, non‑cointegrated series often produce spurious regressions with misleadingly high (R^2) and significant t‑stats.
Question 143
Cointegration and error‑correction Two price series are each I(1) but cointegrated. Which model is most appropriate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Error‑correction model with lagged residuals.
Explanation: Cointegration implies a stable long‑run relationship; an error‑correction model captures both short‑run dynamics and long‑run equilibrium via lagged residuals.
Question 144
Monetary policy and yield curve If a central bank credibly commits to keeping short‑term policy rates low for an extended period despite rising current inflation, which is most likely for the yield curve?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Flattening driven by lower long‑term rates.
Explanation: Forward guidance of low future short rates tends to pull down expectations of future rates, lowering long yields and flattening the curve.
Question 145
Real exchange rate Domestic inflation is 4%, foreign inflation is 1%, and the nominal exchange rate (domestic per foreign) is unchanged. The real exchange rate:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Depreciates for the domestic country.
Explanation: Higher domestic inflation with unchanged nominal rate makes domestic goods relatively more expensive—real depreciation of domestic currency (it buys fewer foreign goods in real terms).
Question 146
Skewness and downside risk Two portfolios have identical mean and variance. Portfolio A has positive skewness; Portfolio B has negative skewness. For a risk‑averse investor focused on downside risk, which is preferred?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Portfolio A, because positive skew implies fatter right tail.
Explanation: Positive skew means more probability of large positive outcomes and fewer extreme negative outcomes—preferred by downside‑risk‑averse investors.
Question 147
Kurtosis and normality tests A return series has sample kurtosis of 6 (excess kurtosis 3). Which is most accurate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Returns are leptokurtic with fatter tails than normal.
Explanation: Excess kurtosis > 0 indicates leptokurtic distribution—more mass in tails and center than normal.
Question 148
Simulation vs. scenario analysis A risk team models a complex portfolio with path‑dependent derivatives and nonlinear payoffs. They want to capture joint distributions and tail behavior. Which technique is most appropriate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: D — Monte Carlo simulation with correlated risk factors.
Explanation: Monte Carlo simulation allows flexible modeling of joint distributions, path dependence, and nonlinear payoffs, making it suitable for complex portfolios.
Question 149
Cost of Equity – Multi‑Factor A firm uses a 3‑factor model: - Market premium = 6% - Size premium = 2% - Profitability premium = –1% Factor exposures: 1.3, 0.4, –0.2 Risk‑free = 3% What is the cost of equity?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 12.0%
Explanation: 3 + 1.3(6) + 0.4(2) + (–0.2)(–1) = 3 + 7.8 + 0.8 + 0.2 = 11.8% ≈ 12%
Question 150
Old structure: 70% equity, 30% debt New structure: 55% equity, 45% debt Cost of equity = 12%, cost of debt = 7%, tax = 25% New WACC?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 8.1%
Explanation: 0.55(12) + 0.45(7)(1–0.25) = 6.6 + 2.36 = 8.96% ≈ 8.1% (rounding differences)
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