Free ACCA Financial Reporting Practice Questions & Answers
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Question 181
An entity sells goods for 100,000 with a right of return within 60 days. Based on past experience, returns are expected to be 5%. Revenue recognised at delivery is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 95,000
Explanation: B
Question 182
An entity enters a contract to build a customised machine for 400,000. By year end, costs incurred are 90,000 out of estimated total costs of 300,000. What revenue is recognised this year (cost-to-cost method)?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 120,000
Explanation: B
Question 183
A franchise arrangement grants a licence to use a brand name (point-in-time delivery) plus 12 months of training support (delivered over time). Total fee is 50,000. Stand-alone prices: licence 35,000, support 15,000. Revenue recognised at inception (licence delivery):
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 35,000
Explanation: B
Question 184
An entity sells a product for 1,000 with a two-year assurance-type warranty. What is the revenue treatment for the warranty?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — No separate revenue allocation — the warranty is accounted for as a provision under IAS 37
Explanation: B
Question 185
Under IFRS 15, the residual approach to estimating stand-alone selling price is used when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The stand-alone selling price is highly variable or uncertain and a residual calculation is the most reliable estimate
Explanation: B
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An entity enters a contract for 200,000. Half is received in advance; the rest is due on completion of the single performance obligation. At year end, the work is 40% complete but the obligation has not yet been satisfied. Revenue recognised:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 0 — no revenue until obligation is fully satisfied
Explanation: C
Question 187
An entity sells 10 units of software for 800 each and includes 2 years of free updates (stand-alone value 100 per unit per year). Total contract price = 8,000 for 10 units. How much revenue is deferred for updates at inception?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 1,600
Explanation: C
Question 188
An entity issues a 3-year 5% bond with a face value of 100,000 when the market rate is 7%. The bond proceeds received will be less than 100,000. Under amortised cost, interest expense each year is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Based on 7% applied to the opening carrying amount
Explanation: B
Question 189
Under IFRS 9, which of the following equity instruments cannot be reclassified out of its initial classification?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Equity instruments for which the FVTOCI irrevocable election has been made
Explanation: B
Question 190
An entity has a contract to sell 1,000 units for 50 each. The customer has a right to return up to 100 units within 30 days. Based on historical data, 80 returns are expected. What revenue should be recognised on delivery?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 45,000
Explanation: C
Question 191
A construction contract has a total price of 500,000. By year end, costs incurred are 120,000 out of estimated total costs of 400,000. What revenue should be recognised using the cost-to-cost method?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 150,000
Explanation: B
Question 192
An entity sells a software licence plus one year of support for a bundle price of 120,000. Stand-alone price of licence = 100,000; support = 40,000. How much is recognised at inception (licence delivered at point of sale)?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 85,714
Explanation: C
Question 193
An entity has a 5-year bond with face value 500,000, coupon rate 6%, and effective interest rate 8%. The bond is classified at amortised cost. Calculate the opening year 1 carrying amount (to the nearest 000).
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 460,000
Explanation: B
Question 194
An entity reclassifies a debt instrument from amortised cost to FVTPL because its business model changed. At the reclassification date, the carrying amount is 200,000 and fair value is 215,000. The 15,000 difference is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Recognised immediately in profit or loss on reclassification
Explanation: B
Question 195
An entity issues a financial liability at amortised cost for proceeds of 490,000 (face value 500,000, 3-year term, coupon 5%, effective rate 6%). Year 1 interest expense and closing carrying amount:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Interest 29,400; CA 494,400
Explanation: C
Question 196
An entity has trade receivables (gross) of 500,000 at year end, with a loss allowance of 30,000. Opening gross receivables were 420,000 with loss allowance of 20,000. In the indirect method cash flow, the working capital adjustment for receivables:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Decrease operating cash flow by 70,000, add back 10,000 movement in provision
Explanation: C
Question 197
Under the fair value model for investment property, revaluation gains and losses are recognised:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — In profit or loss for the period
Explanation: C
Question 198
Under the fair value model for investment property, is depreciation charged?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — No, depreciation is not charged
Explanation: C
Question 199
At the commencement of a lease, the lessee recognises:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A right-of-use asset and a corresponding lease liability
Explanation: B
Question 200
How is the initial lease liability measured by the lessee?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — At the present value of future lease payments
Explanation: B
Question 201
Which of the following is an exception that allows a lessee to avoid recognising a right-of-use asset and lease liability?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Short-term leases (12 months or less) and leases of low-value assets
Explanation: B
Question 202
How is a right-of-use asset depreciated?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Over the shorter of the lease term and the asset's useful life, unless ownership transfers or purchase is certain
Explanation: B
Question 203
What is a finance lease from the lessor's perspective?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A lease that transfers substantially all risks and rewards of ownership to the lessee
Explanation: B
Question 204
In an operating lease for the lessor, the asset:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Remains on the lessor's balance sheet and is depreciated by the lessor
Explanation: B
Question 205
What is a right-of-use (ROU) asset?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — An asset recognised by the lessee representing the right to use the underlying leased asset for the lease term
Explanation: B
Question 206
Which of the following is an example of a short-term lease exception under IFRS 16?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A 12-month warehouse lease with no purchase option
Explanation: B
Question 207
An entity transfers a property from owner-occupied use to investment property measured at fair value. At the transfer date, fair value exceeds carrying amount by 60,000. How is this treated?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 60,000 treated as a revaluation gain recognised in OCI (revaluation surplus)
Explanation: B
Question 208
A property is transferred from owner-occupied to investment property held at fair value. At the transfer date, the fair value exceeds the carrying amount. The excess is treated as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A revaluation gain in OCI, with any amount reversing a previous impairment in profit or loss
Explanation: B
Question 209
Under IFRS 16, the interest charge on the lease liability each period is calculated using:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The effective interest rate applied to the opening lease liability balance
Explanation: B
Question 210
A lessee's lease liability at the start of year 1 is 50,000, with an effective interest rate of 8%. The annual lease payment is 12,523 payable at year end. What is the closing lease liability after year 1?
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