Free CFA Portfolio Management Practice Questions & Answers
1,100 exam-style Portfolio Management questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
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Question 721
A sovereign wealth fund's spending policy is 4% of assets per year. If assets are $500 billion and the fund earns 7% nominal return, by how much do assets grow?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — $15 billion
Explanation: Growth = (7% − 4%) × $500B = 3% × $500B = $15B. A is just the 7% return. C is 4%. D is wrong.
Question 722
An investor expects to receive $200,000 in 10 years. If the discount rate is 6%, what is the present value?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — $111,679
Explanation: PV = 200,000/(1.06)^10 = 200,000/1.7908 = $111,679. B uses simple interest. C uses higher rate. D is wrong.
Question 723
The information ratio of a portfolio is 0.75 and the tracking error is 8%. The active return is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 6.0%
Explanation: Active return = IR × Tracking error = 0.75 × 8% = 6.0%. A divides instead of multiplies. C is just the IR. D is wrong.
Question 724
An investor reports that regardless of market conditions, they never sell any holdings. This most likely reflects:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Status quo bias and possibly loss aversion
Explanation: Never selling is extreme inaction — consistent with status quo bias (preferring current state) and loss aversion (avoiding realizing losses). A would sometimes call for selling overvalued positions. C involves active rebalancing. D would allow selling to manage risk.
Question 725
A portfolio manager who follows a written rebalancing policy regardless of market conditions is most directly addressing which behavioral bias?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Inertia and status quo bias
Explanation: A disciplined rebalancing policy forces action (selling winners, buying losers) that overcomes the natural tendency toward inaction (status quo bias and inertia). Without the policy, managers often fail to rebalance. A is overtrading issue. B is information bias. D is about avoiding regret from prior actions.
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The 'planning' phase of portfolio management would best be followed by which of these next steps?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Executing asset allocation trades
Explanation: After planning (IPS, objectives, asset allocation strategy), the execution step follows — implementing the plan by selecting securities and executing trades. C is premature. A and D are not next steps.
Question 727
Which type of investor is MOST likely to have a mandate that prohibits speculative-grade investments?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Insurance company with regulatory capital requirements
Explanation: Insurance companies face strict regulatory requirements on portfolio quality to ensure they can meet policyholder claims. They are typically restricted to investment-grade assets. A and D specifically pursue higher-risk investments. B has fewer restrictions than regulated institutions.
Question 728
The primary reason that passive investing has grown significantly in recent decades is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Most active managers underperform their benchmarks net of fees over long periods, making low-cost passive investing attractive
Explanation: Academic research and practitioner experience show most active managers fail to beat benchmarks after fees. Low-cost passive funds (index funds, ETFs) capture market returns efficiently. A contradicts evidence. C is wrong. D is wrong.
Question 729
An investor says: 'I believe stocks in my home country will always outperform foreign stocks because I know them better.' This investor is most likely exhibiting:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Home bias and overconfidence
Explanation: Believing home stocks outperform because of familiarity (without objective basis) combines home bias (over-investing domestically) and overconfidence (overestimating knowledge advantage). A would require objective evidence. C is a real consideration but doesn't justify overweighting. D is about risk, not geography.
Question 730
According to modern portfolio theory, the optimal portfolio for every investor:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Lies on the efficient frontier at the point tangent to the investor's highest attainable utility (indifference) curve
Explanation: The optimal portfolio is investor-specific: it's where the investor's highest achievable indifference curve touches the efficient frontier. Different risk preferences produce different optimal portfolios on the same efficient frontier. A is wrong. B ignores risk. D is only optimal for extremely risk-averse investors.
Question 731
Which of the following behavioral biases is most directly related to investors trading too frequently?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Overconfidence
Explanation: Overconfident investors overestimate their ability to time the market and identify winners, leading to excessive trading — which increases costs and typically reduces returns. A causes holding losers too long. B causes under-trading. D causes following the crowd.
Question 732
An investor chooses to hold a highly concentrated stock position inherited from a family estate, despite poor diversification. This is most likely driven by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Endowment bias — overvaluing assets they already own
Explanation: Endowment bias causes people to place higher value on assets they own compared to equivalent assets they don't. This creates reluctance to sell even when diversification would clearly benefit the portfolio. A is about loss realization. B is about geography. D is about recent performance.
Question 733
Which of the following performance measurement errors would most UNDERMINE the reliability of Jensen's alpha as a skill measure?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Using a benchmark that does not match the portfolio's investment style
Explanation: If the benchmark (and thus beta calculation) is mismatched to the portfolio's actual investment style, CAPM beta will be mis-estimated, making alpha a misleading measure of skill. B is also a concern. A and D are minor issues.
Question 734
The 'feedback' loop in portfolio management ensures that:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Investment decisions are monitored, performance is evaluated, and the portfolio is adjusted as circumstances evolve
Explanation: Feedback involves ongoing monitoring of portfolio vs. objectives, evaluation of manager performance, and updating the IPS and portfolio as client needs or market conditions change. A, B, D are wrong.
Question 735
Which type of pooled fund typically imposes 'lock-up' periods during which investors cannot redeem?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: D — Private equity or hedge fund
Explanation: Lock-up periods are common in private equity and hedge funds, restricting investor withdrawals for months or years. This allows managers to invest in illiquid strategies. A, B, C offer daily or intraday liquidity.
Question 736
An investor who refuses to sell any investment because 'they might go up later' is most likely exhibiting:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Loss aversion combined with hope bias
Explanation: Holding all positions regardless of fundamentals (hoping for recovery) reflects loss aversion (refusing to realize losses) combined with wishful thinking. A would be based on fundamental analysis. C involves buying on valuation. D would require evidence, not hope.
Question 737
In the context of risk management, 'risk budgeting' is most closely analogous to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Distributing a firm's total risk tolerance across business units or portfolio strategies
Explanation: Risk budgeting divides the total risk allowance among different parts of the portfolio or business, ensuring each unit or strategy stays within its allocated risk share. A is a trading rule. B is capital allocation. D is credit analysis.
Question 738
A financial planner tells a client that her portfolio should target a 7% nominal return, assuming 3% inflation. The implied real return target is approximately:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 3.88%
Explanation: Real return = (1.07/1.03)−1 = 1.03883−1 = 3.88%. A uses simple subtraction (approximate). C is nominal. D adds instead of divides.
Question 739
The most important consideration when comparing the performance of two portfolio managers is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Which manager delivered better risk-adjusted performance relative to their stated mandate and benchmark
Explanation: True performance evaluation requires risk-adjustment and benchmark-relative analysis. Higher absolute return could reflect more risk-taking, not skill. A ignores risk. B and D are secondary factors.
Question 740
Which of the following behavioral interventions is most effective for reducing the impact of overconfidence in portfolio decisions?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Maintaining a detailed decision journal and pre-mortem analysis to challenge assumptions
Explanation: Decision journals and pre-mortems (asking 'what could go wrong?') force systematic challenge of one's own analysis, counteracting overconfidence. A worsens overconfidence. C is herding. D amplifies overconfidence bias.
Question 741
The concept of 'absolute return' investing targets:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Positive returns regardless of market direction, typically by using long/short strategies
Explanation: Absolute return strategies (common in hedge funds) aim for positive returns in all market conditions using long/short, derivatives, and alternative approaches. A is relative return. C and D are wrong.
Question 742
An investor who is risk averse will:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Accept higher risk only if compensated with higher expected return
Explanation: A risk-averse investor requires additional expected return as compensation for taking on more risk. They will not accept greater risk for free. A describes a risk-seeking investor. C describes a risk-loving investor. D describes a risk-neutral investor.
Question 743
The variance of a single asset's returns measures:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The dispersion of returns around the mean return
Explanation: Variance measures how spread out returns are around the mean — it quantifies the uncertainty of returns. Lower variance means returns cluster tightly around the mean. A is the mean return. C is beta/correlation. D is a different concept.
Question 744
The standard deviation of a portfolio is most accurately described as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Always less than the weighted average of individual standard deviations when assets are not perfectly correlated
Explanation: Due to diversification effects, portfolio standard deviation is less than the weighted average of individual standard deviations as long as correlation < 1. A is incorrect — that would ignore covariance. C and D are wrong.
Question 745
When two assets have a correlation of +1.0, combining them in a portfolio:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Provides no diversification benefit — portfolio risk is the weighted average of individual risks
Explanation: Perfect positive correlation means assets move in lockstep. There is no diversification benefit. Portfolio standard deviation equals the weighted average of individual standard deviations. A and B describe lower correlations. D is incorrect.
Question 746
As the number of assets in a portfolio increases, which type of risk approaches zero?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: D — Unsystematic (idiosyncratic) risk
Explanation: Unsystematic (company-specific) risk can be diversified away by adding more assets. As n increases, it approaches zero. Systematic risk (A, B, C) cannot be eliminated through diversification — it affects all assets.
Question 747
The covariance between two assets is positive. This means:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The two assets tend to move in the same direction on average
Explanation: Positive covariance indicates that when one asset's return is above its mean, the other tends to also be above its mean. It does not guarantee they always move together (A), nor does it imply perfect correlation (D). C is wrong — positive covariance doesn't eliminate risk.
Question 748
An indifference curve in mean-variance space represents:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — All portfolios that provide the same level of utility to an investor
Explanation: An indifference curve connects portfolios that give an investor equal satisfaction (utility). An investor is indifferent among all points on a given curve. A and B describe single dimensions, not the curve. D describes the investment opportunity set.
Question 749
For a risk-averse investor, indifference curves in the mean-return vs. standard deviation space are:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Upward sloping, reflecting that more return is needed to compensate for more risk
Explanation: Risk-averse investors require higher expected return to accept higher risk. Their indifference curves slope upward — as risk rises, so must return to maintain the same utility. Steeper curves indicate greater risk aversion. A, B, D are wrong.
Question 750
The minimum-variance portfolio on the efficient frontier is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The portfolio with the lowest possible variance among all possible portfolios
Explanation: The minimum-variance portfolio (MVP) is the leftmost point on the efficient frontier — it has the lowest variance achievable given all available risky assets. It is not zero risk (D) unless assets are perfectly negatively correlated. A and C describe other special portfolios.
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