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Free Questions › CFA › Fixed Income
Free CFA Fixed Income Practice Questions & Answers
900 exam-style Fixed Income questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
100% free · No login to startQuestion 721
A bond has a 7% coupon and a YTM of 8%. If it matures in exactly 1 year at $1,000, what is its price?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — $990.74
Explanation: Price = ($70 + $1,000)/1.08 = $1,070/1.08 = $990.74. B is par. C and D are wrong.
Question 722
A floating rate bond has a reference rate of 2.5% and a quoted margin of 175 bps. If the reference rate resets and rises to 3.5%, what is the new coupon rate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 5.25%
Explanation: New coupon = New reference rate + Margin = 3.5% + 1.75% = 5.25%. B uses old rate. C is just new reference. D is just the margin.
Question 723
What is the price of a 3-year zero-coupon bond with $1,000 face value if the 3-year spot rate is 4.5%?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — $876.30
Explanation: Price = $1,000 / (1.045)³ = $1,000 / 1.1412 = $876.30. B, C, D are wrong.
Question 724
An investor buys a 2-year bond at $950 with a 5% annual coupon on $1,000 face. What is the total undiscounted cash flow?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — $1,100
Explanation: Total cash = $50 + $50 + $1,000 = $1,100. B includes only 1 coupon + par. C is just par. D is the purchase price.
Question 725
A bond's Z-spread is 120 bps. If the bond is callable and its OAS is 85 bps, what does the 35 bps difference represent?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The value of the call option held by the issuer
Explanation: Z-spread − OAS = option cost = 35 bps. This represents the compensation investors receive for the call risk — i.e., the value of the call option the issuer holds. A and C are absorbed into OAS. D is unrelated.
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Question 726
An upward-sloping yield curve can simultaneously be consistent with which combination of theories?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Liquidity preference and pure expectations
Explanation: Both liquidity preference and pure expectations can produce upward-sloping curves: expectations of rising rates (pure expectations) plus a positive term premium (liquidity preference). A is possible but unusual — market segmentation is neutral on slope direction. C contradicts an upward slope.
Question 727
An investor's realized return differs from the bond's initial YTM primarily because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Actual reinvestment rates differ from the assumed YTM
Explanation: YTM assumes reinvestment at the same rate. In practice, coupons are reinvested at market rates that differ from YTM, causing realized return to diverge. A is wrong — face value is fixed. C is wrong for fixed coupon bonds. D is a credit spread issue, not the main reason.
Question 728
Which of the following would cause a bond's YTM to increase?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — An increase in inflation expectations
Explanation: Higher inflation expectations drive up nominal yields, increasing YTM and lowering bond prices. A would decrease YTM (better credit = lower spread). B directly decreases YTM. D (shorter maturity) generally reduces YTM in a normal yield curve but is less direct than C.
Question 729
A bond has a flat yield curve environment with all rates at 5%. What shape would you expect for the bond's yield curve exposure?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Flat — equal sensitivity at all maturities
Explanation: In a flat yield curve environment (all rates equal), the bond faces equal yield levels across maturities. The yield curve itself is horizontal. A, C are different shapes. D is wrong — the shape is determined by market rates.
Question 730
Which of the following best explains why a bond's price is the present value of its future cash flows?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Because rational investors pay only what future cash flows are worth in today's money
Explanation: Bond pricing is based on the time value of money — an investor pays today what the future cash flows are worth in present terms, discounted at the required rate of return (YTM). A, C, D are wrong.
Question 731
A bond's yield to maturity is best described as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The internal rate of return that equates the bond's price to the present value of all future cash flows
Explanation: YTM is the IRR of the bond — the discount rate that makes the PV of all future cash flows (coupons + principal) equal to the current price. A is the coupon rate. C is a very short-term yield. D is the real yield.
Question 732
An investor purchases a 2-year bond at par with a 5% coupon. Interest rates immediately rise to 7%. What happens to the bond's price?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — It falls below par
Explanation: When market rates rise above the coupon rate, the bond's fixed payments are less attractive, so its price falls below par. The purchase price is irrelevant to subsequent pricing. A, B, D are wrong.
Question 733
Which of the following correctly states the relationship between bond maturity and price sensitivity for two otherwise identical bonds?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Longer maturity bonds are more price sensitive
Explanation: Longer maturity means more cash flows occur further in the future, making their present value more sensitive to discount rate (yield) changes. This is why 30-year bonds are much more volatile than 2-year bonds. A, C, D are wrong.
Question 734
A bond's price when yields are lower is $1,050 and when yields are higher is $960. If the base yield change was 50 bps in each direction, and the base price was $1,000, what is the approximate modified duration?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 9.0
Explanation: ModDur = (P_down − P_up) / (2 × P_0 × Δy) = (1050 − 960) / (2 × 1000 × 0.005) = 90/10 = 9.0. B uses wrong formula. C halves the answer. D doubles.
Question 735
A bond with a face value of $1,000 has an annual coupon of $80 and a current price of $1,120. What is its current yield and how does it compare to its coupon rate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Current yield = 7.14%, below coupon rate of 8%
Explanation: Current yield = $80/$1,120 = 7.14%. Coupon rate = $80/$1,000 = 8%. Since the bond trades at a premium, current yield < coupon rate. B is wrong. C and D are wrong.
Question 736
The implied forward rate from a flat yield curve (where all spot rates are equal) is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Equal to the spot rate
Explanation: If all spot rates are equal (flat curve), then forward rates implied by the no-arbitrage condition also equal that same rate. A flat curve has no information about future rate changes, so forwards = spots. A and B are wrong. D is wrong.
Question 737
A bond's yield-to-maturity will equal its realized return over the holding period only if:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — The bond is held to maturity with coupons reinvested at the YTM
Explanation: For non-zero-coupon bonds, realized return equals YTM only when coupons are reinvested at exactly the YTM rate and the bond is held to maturity. D is actually correct for zero-coupon bonds regardless of reinvestment (since there are no coupons). But A is the best general answer.
Question 738
Which of the following measures accounts for both the time value of money and the reinvestment of coupon cash flows when calculating yield?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Yield to maturity
Explanation: YTM accounts for all cash flows (including reinvestment at the YTM rate) and time value of money. Current yield (A) ignores maturity and reinvestment. Nominal yield (B) is similar to YTM but quoted differently. Coupon rate (D) ignores price and reinvestment entirely.
Question 739
A bond has a face value of $1,000, a 5% annual coupon, and a YTM of 5%. If it has 10 years to maturity, its price is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — $1,000
Explanation: When coupon rate equals YTM, the bond always prices at par regardless of maturity. $1,000. A, B, D are wrong.
Question 740
An investor buying a bond in the secondary market pays the dirty price. The portion of the dirty price above the clean price compensates:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The seller for interest earned since the last coupon date
Explanation: Accrued interest compensates the seller for holding the bond between coupon dates — they earned that interest but won't receive the coupon (the buyer will). A, C, D are wrong.
Question 741
For a premium bond held to maturity, which of the following orderings of yield measures is correct?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Coupon rate > current yield > YTM
Explanation: For a premium bond: Coupon rate > current yield > YTM. Coupon rate is highest (set when priced at par). Current yield = coupon/market price < coupon rate since price > par. YTM is lowest because it also incorporates the capital loss at maturity (principal repayment < purchase price).
Question 742
A bond has a 1-year YTM of 8%. Its semi-annual equivalent YTM is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 3.923%
Explanation: Semi-annual rate: (1.08)^0.5 − 1 = 1.03923 − 1 = 3.923%. This is the semi-annual rate that compounds to 8% annually. A is simply 8%/2. C converts semi-annual to annual (going the wrong way). D is wrong.
Question 743
If the yield curve inverts, the implied forward rates for the near term are:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Lower than current short-term rates
Explanation: In an inverted yield curve (short rates > long rates), the implied forward rates fall below current short-term rates — the market is implying rates will decline. This is why pure expectations theory predicts inversions reflect expectations of rate decreases. A, C, D are wrong.
Question 744
A bond is priced at a 'discount' to par. As it approaches maturity, assuming constant yield, the bond's price will:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Rise toward par
Explanation: Pull-to-par: as a discount bond approaches maturity, its price converges to par (face value) because at maturity the holder receives par. This is the accrual of the discount over time. A and B are wrong. D is wrong under constant yield assumption.
Question 745
The preferred habitat theory of the term structure differs from the liquidity preference theory in that:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Preferred habitat says investors demand a premium only for maturities outside their preferred range
Explanation: Preferred habitat allows investors to leave their preferred maturity segment if offered a sufficient premium. Unlike strict market segmentation (no movement) or liquidity preference (always prefer short), preferred habitat acknowledges both a natural habitat and the ability to move for a price. B, C, D are wrong.
Question 746
A bond with a 3% coupon trades at a yield of 5%. The bond is trading at:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — A discount
Explanation: When the coupon rate (3%) is less than the YTM (5%), the bond must trade below par (at a discount). This is because fixed coupon payments are less than what the market currently demands, so the price falls to compensate. B is wrong. A requires coupon = YTM. D is wrong — we can determine this without maturity.
Question 747
A bond has a face value of $1,000, matures in exactly 2 years, pays 4% annually, and has a YTM of 6%. Its price is closest to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — $963.00
Explanation: PV = 40/1.06 + 1040/1.06² = 37.74 + 925.18 = $962.92 ≈ $963.00. Since YTM > coupon, price < par. B is par. C uses higher rate. D is wrong.
Question 748
Macaulay duration is best described as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The weighted-average time to receive all cash flows from a bond
Explanation: B is correct. Macaulay duration is the time-weighted present value of cash flows divided by the bond price—giving the weighted-average time in years. A is (approximately) modified duration. C is spread duration. D is just the bond price.
Question 749
Modified duration is most accurately described as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — An approximation of the percentage change in bond price for a 1% change in yield
Explanation: B is correct. Modified duration ≈ −(ΔP/P) / Δy. It converts Macaulay duration to a yield sensitivity measure: Mod Dur = Mac Dur / (1 + y/m) where m is coupons per year. A is Macaulay duration. C is PVBP/DV01. D reverses the formula.
Question 750
A higher modified duration indicates that a bond:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Is more sensitive to interest rate changes—a given yield change causes a larger percentage price change
Explanation: B is correct. Modified duration measures interest rate sensitivity. A bond with higher modified duration experiences larger percentage price changes for the same yield move. Short-maturity, high-coupon bonds have low duration. Long-maturity, low-coupon bonds have high duration.
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