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Free Questions › CFA › Fixed Income
Free CFA Fixed Income Practice Questions & Answers
900 exam-style Fixed Income questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
100% free · No login to startQuestion 571
A bond with a face value of $5,000 and a 4% semi-annual coupon has accrued 45 days of interest in a 180-day coupon period. What is the accrued interest?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — $25.00
Explanation: Semi-annual coupon = $5,000 × 4%/2 = $100. Accrued interest = $100 × (45/180) = $100 × 0.25 = $25. B is the full semi-annual coupon. C halves again unnecessarily. D is the annual coupon.
Question 572
Which of the following best describes a 'perpetual bond' (consol)?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A bond with no maturity date that pays coupons indefinitely
Explanation: A perpetual bond (consol) pays coupons forever with no maturity and no principal repayment. Its price = Annual coupon / Yield. A is ultra-long dated but does mature. C is a convertible. D is incorrect.
Question 573
A Yankee bond is issued in the United States by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — A non-US entity in USD for sale in the US
Explanation: Yankee bonds are issued by foreign companies in the US market, denominated in USD, and subject to US regulations. A is a Treasury. B is a reverse Yankee. D is domestic.
Question 574
Which of the following best describes a 'Brady bond'?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A dollar-denominated bond issued by emerging market governments as part of debt restructuring programs
Explanation: Brady bonds were created in the 1980s-90s to restructure sovereign emerging market debt (e.g., Mexico, Brazil) into tradeable dollar-denominated bonds. Named after US Treasury Secretary Nicholas Brady. A, C, D are wrong.
Question 575
An issuer wants to raise funds but retain flexibility to retire the debt if interest rates fall. The most appropriate bond structure would be:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A callable bond allowing early redemption
Explanation: A callable bond gives the issuer the right to redeem early — ideal if rates fall and the issuer wants to refinance at lower rates. A gives rights to the bondholder, not the issuer. C has no options. D adjusts the coupon but doesn't allow early retirement.
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Question 576
A bond that has its principal repayment linked to an inflation index is called:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — An inflation-linked bond (or real return bond)
Explanation: Inflation-linked bonds (e.g., TIPS in the US) adjust the principal (and thus coupons) based on an inflation index. They protect investors from purchasing power erosion. A adjusts the coupon to a rate benchmark. C converts to equity. D has a scheduled coupon increase.
Question 577
When a bond is trading 'ex-dividend,' it means:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — The bond is priced without the next coupon, which belongs to the seller
Explanation: In ex-dividend trading, the seller retains the upcoming coupon even if the bond is sold. The buyer purchases the bond knowing they will not receive the next coupon. This is more common in some markets (e.g., UK gilts). A, B, D are wrong.
Question 578
A bond's coupon rate is set at the time of:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Issuance
Explanation: The coupon rate is fixed at issuance (for fixed-rate bonds) and stated in the indenture. A, B, D are wrong. For floating rate bonds, the rate resets periodically, but the margin/spread is set at issuance.
Question 579
The term 'yield pickup' refers to when an investor:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Earns additional yield by switching from a lower-yielding bond to a higher-yielding one
Explanation: Yield pickup is the additional yield earned by moving from one bond to a higher-yielding one (typically accepting more credit risk or duration). A is reinvestment income. C is buying at a discount. D is a step-up bond feature.
Question 580
Which of the following most accurately describes why high-yield bonds typically pay higher coupons than investment-grade bonds?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — To attract investors who accept higher default risk
Explanation: High-yield bonds compensate investors for the higher probability and severity of default. The higher coupon is the risk premium for credit risk. A, C, D are incorrect.
Question 581
A bond's original maturity is 30 years and it was issued 25 years ago. Its remaining maturity is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 5 years
Explanation: Remaining maturity = Original maturity − Time elapsed = 30 − 25 = 5 years. A is the original maturity. B is time elapsed. D adds them.
Question 582
Which of the following is the most likely reason an issuer would include a call provision in a bond?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — To allow the issuer to refinance at lower rates if interest rates fall
Explanation: Issuers include call provisions to give them the flexibility to retire expensive debt and refinance at lower rates when rates fall. Bondholders are compensated for this risk via a higher yield. A, C, D are wrong.
Question 583
An investor comparing two bonds: Bond X has a 6% coupon and no embedded options; Bond Y has a 6% coupon and is callable. Which bond has a higher yield?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Bond Y
Explanation: Callable bonds offer investors less certainty (issuer may call when it benefits them). To compensate for this call risk, Bond Y (callable) must offer a higher yield. Bond X is more valuable to the investor, so it commands a lower yield. C and D are wrong.
Question 584
Which of the following most accurately describes a 'Samurai bond'?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A yen-denominated bond issued in Japan by a non-Japanese entity
Explanation: Samurai bonds are foreign bonds issued in Japan in Japanese yen. They are subject to Japanese regulations and targeted at Japanese investors. The issuer is a non-Japanese entity. A, C, D are wrong.
Question 585
A bond's price and its required yield move in opposite directions because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A higher discount rate reduces the present value of all future cash flows
Explanation: B is correct. Bond price is the present value of future cash flows. When the discount rate (yield) rises, the PV of each cash flow falls—so the bond price falls. A is wrong—coupons are fixed. C is true but doesn't explain the mechanics. D confuses coupon rate with required yield.
Question 586
The yield to maturity (YTM) of a bond is best described as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The internal rate of return earned if the bond is held to maturity and all cash flows are reinvested at the same rate
Explanation: B is correct. YTM is the single discount rate that equates the present value of all future cash flows (coupons and par) to the current market price. It assumes reinvestment at the same rate. A is current yield. C is an approximation. D describes the G-spread decomposition.
Question 587
When a bond is priced at a premium above par, it means:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The bond's coupon rate exceeds the required market yield
Explanation: B is correct. A bond trades at a premium when its coupon is higher than the current required yield—investors pay more than par to receive the above-market income. A (coupon < yield) leads to a discount. C and D are unrelated to premium pricing.
Question 588
Matrix pricing is used primarily to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Estimate the yield or price of a bond that doesn't have a quoted price by interpolating from traded comparable bonds
Explanation: B is correct. Matrix pricing is a practical approach: if a bond is illiquid or not quoted, analysts interpolate its yield from the yields of similar bonds (same issuer or comparable credit, similar maturities) to estimate a price. A is model-based pricing. C is option-adjusted pricing. D is coupon setting.
Question 589
As a bond approaches its maturity date, its price will converge toward:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The bond's par value, regardless of the yield environment
Explanation: B is correct. Regardless of whether the bond traded at a premium or discount, its price must converge to par at maturity—because that is the contractual amount repaid. This is the 'pull to par' effect. A, C, D are all wrong.
Question 590
A bond's current yield is calculated as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Annual coupon payment divided by the bond's current market price
Explanation: B is correct. Current yield = annual coupon / current price. It is a simple but incomplete measure—it ignores capital gains/losses and the time value of money. A is the coupon rate (coupon/par). C and D are not current yield.
Question 591
The 'coupon effect' on bond duration states that:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Higher-coupon bonds have shorter durations than lower-coupon bonds of the same maturity
Explanation: A is correct. Higher coupon payments mean a greater proportion of value comes from near-term cash flows—shortening the weighted-average timing of cash flows (duration). A zero-coupon bond has the longest duration equal to maturity. B reverses this relationship.
Question 592
The 'maturity effect' on bond duration states that, all else equal:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Longer maturity bonds have longer durations because cash flows occur further into the future
Explanation: B is correct. Extending maturity pushes the principal repayment further out, increasing the weighted-average time to cash flows—hence longer duration. B is the general rule.
Question 593
The Z-spread of a bond is best described as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A constant spread added to each point of the risk-free spot rate curve so the PV of all cash flows equals the bond's market price
Explanation: B is correct. The Z-spread (zero-volatility spread) is a constant spread applied to the entire spot rate curve. It makes the discounted cash flows equal the market price. It accounts for the full term structure, unlike the G-spread which compares to a single maturity. C is the OAS.
Question 594
For an option-free bond, the OAS equals the Z-spread because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — There are no embedded options, so no value needs to be deducted for optionality
Explanation: A is correct. OAS = Z-spread − option cost. For an option-free bond, the option cost is zero, so OAS = Z-spread. For callable bonds, the option cost is positive, so OAS < Z-spread. B, C, D are incorrect.
Question 595
A flat yield curve implies that:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — All maturities along the yield curve offer approximately the same yield
Explanation: B is correct. A flat (horizontal) yield curve occurs when yields are roughly the same across all maturities—unusual but seen at transition points in interest rate cycles. A is an inverted curve. C is a steep (upward-sloping) curve.
Question 596
An inverted (downward-sloping) yield curve most often signals:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Short-term interest rates are higher than long-term rates, often anticipating future rate cuts
Explanation: B is correct. An inverted curve—where short-term yields exceed long-term yields—typically reflects tight monetary policy and expectations that rates will fall in the future. Historically, inversions have often preceded recessions.
Question 597
Spot rates (zero-coupon rates) are preferred for bond pricing because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Each cash flow is discounted at the rate appropriate for its own maturity, giving a theoretically correct price
Explanation: B is correct. Using spot rates to discount each individual cash flow at the appropriate maturity-matched rate is theoretically superior to using a single flat YTM. This is the law of one price application in fixed income. A is wrong—spots must often be derived. C is a benefit but not the primary reason.
Question 598
Bootstrapping in the context of bond pricing refers to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — An iterative process to derive zero-coupon spot rates from the prices of coupon bonds
Explanation: A is correct. Bootstrapping extracts spot rates sequentially from par bond prices: start with the shortest maturity, solve for its spot rate, then use that to solve the next maturity, and so on. B is a statistical/ML concept. C is self-issuance. D is hedging.
Question 599
An upward-sloping (normal) yield curve is typically consistent with the expectation that:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Future short-term rates will be higher than current short-term rates, or investors require a term premium for holding long-term bonds
Explanation: B is correct. A normal (steep) yield curve reflects either (1) expectations of rising future short-term rates, (2) a positive term premium demanded for the risks of holding long-duration bonds, or both.
Question 600
The pure expectations theory of the yield curve implies that:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The forward rate is an unbiased estimate of the expected future spot rate
Explanation: B is correct. Pure (unbiased) expectations theory says the long rate is simply an average of expected future short rates—no term premium, no liquidity premium. A is the liquidity preference theory. C is the market segmentation theory.
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