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Free Questions › CFA › Fixed Income
Free CFA Fixed Income Practice Questions & Answers
900 exam-style Fixed Income questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
100% free · No login to startQuestion 301
CVA (Simple) EE = 5M, PD = 3%, LGD = 60%. CVA?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 0.09M
Explanation: CVA = EE×PD×LGD = 5×0.03×0.6 = 0.09M Trap: Using 5×0.03 = 0.15M.
Question 302
MBS IO Strip If prepayments accelerate:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — IO value falls
Explanation: Faster prepayments → fewer interest payments → IO falls. Trap: Thinking “more cash flow = good”.
Question 303
MBS PO Strip If prepayments slow:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — PO value falls
Explanation: PO wants fast principal. Trap: Thinking slower = more interest (PO doesn’t get interest).
Question 304
Forward Price of Zero DF₁ = 0.96, DF₂ = 0.92. Forward price of 1‑year zero starting in 1 year?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 0.958
Explanation: F = DF₂ / DF₁ = 0.92/0.96 = 0.958 Trap: Using DF₁/DF₂. Advanced credit derivatives & tranches
Question 305
In a synthetic CDO, the equity tranche typically:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Has lowest attachment point and highest expected loss
Explanation: Equity is first‑loss: lowest attachment, highest expected loss.
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Question 306
A tranche covers 0–3% of a 100‑name index (1% each). If portfolio loss is 4%, tranche loss is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 3%
Explanation: Tranche fully wiped at 3%; loss capped at width = 3%.
Question 307
A tranche covers 3–7%. Portfolio loss is 5%. Tranche loss is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 2%
Explanation: Loss hitting tranche = 5 − 3 = 2%, within 4% width.
Question 308
Base correlation is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Correlation assigned to each detachment point
Explanation: Base correlation is defined for each detachment level.
Question 309
Higher base correlation generally implies, for mezzanine tranches:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Higher expected loss
Explanation: More correlation → more tail risk → higher expected loss for mezzanine.
Question 310
In a Gaussian copula CDO model, increasing asset correlation tends to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Decrease equity tranche value
Explanation: Higher correlation → more joint defaults → equity suffers more.
Question 311
For senior tranches, higher correlation generally:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Increases value
Explanation: More correlation pushes losses into equity/mezzanine, often benefiting senior.
Question 312
An index tranche 0–3% is best described as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Equity
Explanation: 0–3% is equity/first‑loss.
Question 313
A 3–7% tranche is typically:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Mezzanine
Explanation: 3–7% is classic mezzanine.
Question 314
Expected tranche loss depends most directly on:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Portfolio loss distribution
Explanation: Tranche loss is a function of the distribution of portfolio loss. Interest‑rate models (Ho‑Lee, BDT, Hull‑White, CIR, Vasicek)
Question 315
Mean reversion in short‑rate models mainly affects:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Long‑term rate volatility
Explanation: Mean reversion dampens long‑term rate volatility.
Question 316
A one‑factor short‑rate model cannot fully capture:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Curvature changes
Explanation: One factor mainly captures level; slope/curvature need more factors. Structured products: ABS, CLO, CMBS
Question 317
A CLO is primarily backed by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Corporate loans
Explanation: CLO = collateralized loan obligations (corporate loans).
Question 318
An ABS backed by credit card receivables typically has:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Revolving structure with controlled amortization
Explanation: Credit card ABS often have revolving periods.
Question 319
CMBS analysis focuses heavily on:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — DSCR and LTV
Explanation: Commercial real estate → DSCR, LTV.
Question 320
In CMBS, a high DSCR generally indicates:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Lower default risk
Explanation: Higher DSCR → more cash flow coverage → lower default risk.
Question 321
In a CLO waterfall, equity tranche typically:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Receives residual cash after all others
Explanation: Equity gets residual after all senior tranches.
Question 322
ABS backed by auto loans has prepayment behavior driven mainly by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Vehicle turnover and defaults
Explanation: Auto ABS: prepayments from trade‑ins, defaults, early payoffs.
Question 323
CMBS loans often include lockout and defeasance to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Reduce prepayment risk
Explanation: Lockout/defeasance limit prepayments.
Question 324
In a CMBS deal, the most junior tranche is most exposed to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Credit and property‑specific risk
Explanation: Junior CMBS tranches bear property‑level credit risk.
Question 325
A revolving ABS structure is most likely to have:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Period where principal collections are reinvested
Explanation: Revolving period: principal is reinvested.
Question 326
CLO performance is most sensitive to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Default and recovery on underlying loans
Explanation: CLOs are driven by loan defaults and recoveries. Multi‑curve, OIS discounting, bootstrapping
Question 327
A bond trading special in repo means:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Its repo rate is lower than GC
Explanation: “Special” → cheap to borrow cash, expensive to borrow bond → lower repo rate.
Question 328
FVA (Funding Valuation Adjustment) reflects:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Own funding cost vs risk‑free
Explanation: FVA = adjustment for own funding spread.
Question 329
DVA (Debit Valuation Adjustment) reflects:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Own default risk
Explanation: DVA = benefit from own default (controversial, but that’s the definition). Curve modeling & PCA
Question 330
A one-factor short-rate model implies that:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — All yields move in the same direction when the factor changes.
Explanation: With a single driving factor (the short rate), all yields are linked and move in the same direction when that factor changes, though not necessarily by the same magnitude. B: Magnitudes can differ. C/D: Both ends of the curve are affected.
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