Free CFA Financial Statement Analysis Practice Questions & Answers
900 exam-style Financial Statement Analysis questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
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Question 601
Which inventory method is permitted under US GAAP but prohibited under IFRS?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — LIFO
Explanation: Why C is correct: IFRS prohibits LIFO. Why others are wrong: A, B, and D are allowed under both frameworks.
Question 602
Under IFRS, development costs must be:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Capitalized only if criteria are met
Explanation: Why B is correct: IFRS requires capitalization only when specific conditions are satisfied. Why others are wrong: A is US GAAP treatment. C is incorrect because criteria must be met. D is not an IFRS rule.
Question 603
Under US GAAP, reversal of inventory write-downs is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Prohibited
Explanation: Why C is correct: US GAAP prohibits reversal of write-downs. Why others are wrong: A and B contradict GAAP. D is not a recognized exception.
Question 604
Which characteristic best distinguishes IFRS from US GAAP?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — More principles-based
Explanation: Why B is correct: IFRS is principles-based. Why others are wrong: A describes US GAAP. C and D are not defining distinctions.
Question 605
Which of the following is a required disclosure for reportable segments?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Revenue from external customers
Explanation: Why B is correct: Segment revenue must be disclosed. Why others are wrong: A is not required. C is not segment-specific. D is disclosed in proxy statements, not segment notes.
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A segment must be reported separately if it represents at least what percentage of combined segment revenue, assets, or profit?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 10%
Explanation: Why B is correct: The quantitative threshold is 10%. Why others are wrong: A, C, and D do not match the standard.
Question 607
If reportable segments collectively represent less than 75% of total revenue, the company must:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Add additional segments
Explanation: Why B is correct: Additional segments must be identified until reaching 75%. Why others are wrong: A and C contradict disclosure requirements. D is unrelated.
Question 608
Which of the following is typically included in segment disclosures if reviewed by the chief decision-maker?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Segment liabilities
Explanation: Why B is correct: Assets and liabilities are disclosed if regularly reviewed. Why others are wrong: A and C are not required. D belongs in proxy statements.
Question 609
Which type of information is most likely found in the notes to financial statements?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Related-party transactions
Explanation: Why B is correct: Related-party disclosures are standard note content. Why others are wrong: A is external. C is in Forms 3/4/5. D is in proxy materials.
Question 610
Which phase of analysis includes comparing actual results to expectations?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Follow-up
Explanation: Why B is correct: Follow-up evaluates actual vs. expected outcomes. Why others are wrong: A and C occur earlier. D is unrelated.
Question 611
Which filing is used by non-US registrants for annual reporting?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Form 20-F
Explanation: Why B is correct: Form 20-F is the annual filing for non-US companies. Why others are wrong: A is for US companies. C is for current events. D is for benefit plans.
Question 612
Which filing is semiannual for many non-US companies?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Form 6-K
Explanation: Why A is correct: Form 6-K is used for interim reporting by non-US firms. Why others are wrong: B is quarterly for US firms. C is a proxy statement. D concerns restricted securities.
Question 613
Which of the following is a typical source of information during data collection?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Supplier interviews
Explanation: Why B is correct: Supplier discussions are part of data collection. Why others are wrong: A and C are outputs of later phases. D is external and not part of data collection.
Question 614
Which filing includes MD&A for interim periods?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Form 10-Q
Explanation: Why A is correct: Form 10-Q includes interim MD&A. Why others are wrong: B reports events. C is for benefit plans. D is proxy-related.
Question 615
Which of the following is a required disclosure for each reportable segment?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Depreciation expense
Explanation: Why B is correct: Depreciation is required if reviewed by management. Why others are wrong: A is not required. C and D are not part of segment notes.
Question 616
Which filing is most useful for analyzing insider trading patterns?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: D — All of the above
Explanation: Why D is correct: Forms 3, 4, and 5 collectively track insider ownership and changes. Why others are wrong: A, B, and C individually provide only part of the picture.
Question 617
Which of the following is a characteristic of an operating segment?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — It must generate revenue
Explanation: Why A is correct: Operating segments engage in activities that may generate revenue. Why others are wrong: B is not required. C is not required (internal revenue counts). D applies only to reportable segments.
Question 618
Which filing includes information about legal proceedings?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Form 10-K
Explanation: Why A is correct: Legal proceedings are part of 10-K disclosures. Why others are wrong: B concerns restricted securities. C concerns insider ownership. D concerns benefit plans.
Question 619
Which phase of analysis includes ratio analysis?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Process data
Explanation: Why B is correct: Ratios are created during data processing. Why others are wrong: A gathers raw data. C monitors results. D defines objectives.
Question 620
Which filing is required before a shareholder meeting?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Form DEF-14A
Explanation: Why B is correct: Proxy statements are required before shareholder votes. Why others are wrong: A is interim reporting. C reports events. D is annual reporting.
Question 621
Which of the following is a typical component of the annual report but not the 10-K?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — CEO letter
Explanation: Why B is correct: CEO letters are marketing-oriented and appear in annual reports. Why others are wrong: A, C, and D appear in the 10-K.
Question 622
Which filing is used to disclose the proposed sale of restricted securities?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Form 144
Explanation: Why A is correct: Form 144 notifies the SEC of intended sales of restricted securities. Why others are wrong: B reports ownership changes. C is interim reporting. D is quarterly reporting.
Question 623
Which of the following is a typical note disclosure?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Subsequent events
Explanation: Why B is correct: Subsequent events are standard note disclosures. Why others are wrong: A is external. C is in Forms 3/4/5. D is in proxy statements.
Question 624
Which phase includes creating graphs for analysis?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Process data
Explanation: Why A is correct: Graphs are part of processing data into usable form. Why others are wrong: B gathers raw data. C monitors outcomes. D defines objectives.
Question 625
Which filing is most likely to include risk factors?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Form 10-K
Explanation: Why A is correct: Risk factors are part of the 10-K. Why others are wrong: B concerns benefit plans. C and D relate to insider ownership and restricted securities.
Question 626
Which of the following is required for segment reporting under IFRS and US GAAP?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Discrete financial information
Explanation: Why B is correct: Discrete financial information must be available. Why others are wrong: A and C are not required. D is not required.
Question 627
Which filing is used to disclose changes in accountants or disagreements with auditors?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Form 8-K
Explanation: Why A is correct: Form 8-K reports significant events, including auditor changes. Why others are wrong: B and C are periodic reports. D is proxy-related.
Question 628
Which phase includes valuation modeling?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Analyze/interpret data
Explanation: Why A is correct: Valuation is part of analytical interpretation. Why others are wrong: B prepares data. C gathers data. D monitors results.
Question 629
Which filing provides unaudited financial statements for interim periods?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Form 10-Q
Explanation: Why B is correct: Form 10-Q contains quarterly, unaudited interim financial statements and MD&A. Why others are wrong: A includes audited annual statements. C is a proxy statement, not a financial report. D relates to proposed sales of restricted securities.
Question 630
Which type of information is most likely to appear in the notes rather than the primary financial statements?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Subsequent events
Explanation: Why B is correct: Notes disclose subsequent events, which are not included directly on the statements. Why others are wrong: A, C, and D appear on the primary statements, not in the notes.
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