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Free Questions › CFA › Derivatives
Free CFA Derivatives Practice Questions & Answers
500 exam-style Derivatives questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
100% free · No login to startQuestion 151
Bootstrapping discount factors from coupon bond prices is best described as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Solving sequentially for discount factors starting from the shortest maturity.
Explanation: Why B is right: Bootstrapping uses known prices and earlier discount factors to solve step‑by‑step for longer‑maturity discount factors. Why others are wrong: A: You need multiple maturities. C: Average yield ignores term structure. D: Bootstrapping is often needed precisely because we don’t have zeros.
Question 152
A self‑financing portfolio is one in which:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Rebalancing is funded entirely by the portfolio itself.
Explanation: Why B is right: Self‑financing means no external cash is added or withdrawn; any rebalancing is funded by selling some assets to buy others. Why others are wrong: A: Rebalancing is allowed. C: That would be non‑self‑financing. D: Risky assets can be included.
Question 153
A currency swap typically involves:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Exchanging principal and interest in two different currencies.
Explanation: Why B is right: Currency swaps usually involve initial and final exchange of principal plus periodic interest payments in two currencies. Why others are wrong: A: Ignores principal exchanges. C: Misses periodic interest flows. D: That’s an equity swap.
Question 154
In valuing a currency swap, the standard approach is to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Value each leg as a bond in its own currency and convert one to the other currency.
Explanation: Why B is right: Each leg is valued as a bond in its own currency, then one leg is converted using the spot rate to get the net value in a single currency. Why others are wrong: A: You must consider both legs. C, D: Both interest rates and FX matter.
Question 155
A forward rate agreement (FRA) is most similar to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A single‑period interest rate swap.
Explanation: Why B is right: An FRA is essentially a one‑period interest rate swap: exchange of fixed vs. floating for one period. Why others are wrong: A: Swaption is an option on a swap. C, D: Caps/floors are options on rates, not linear contracts.
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Question 156
The value of an existing FRA is found by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Comparing the original fixed rate to the current forward rate and discounting the difference.
Explanation: Why A is right: FRA value = PV of (original fixed – current forward) × notional × accrual. Why others are wrong: B: Spot alone is not enough. C, D: Need both original and current rates.
Question 157
In a pay‑fixed interest rate swap, the position is equivalent to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Short fixed‑rate bond, long floating‑rate bond.
Explanation: Why B is right: Pay‑fixed, receive‑floating ≈ short fixed‑rate bond, long floating‑rate bond. Why others are wrong: A: That’s receive‑fixed. C, D: Do not match cash flow pattern.
Question 158
The value of a receive‑fixed swap at time (t) (after initiation) is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — PV of fixed leg – PV of floating leg.
Explanation: Why A is right: Receive‑fixed swap value = PV(fixed) – PV(floating). Why others are wrong: B: That’s pay‑fixed. C, D: Must consider both legs.
Question 159
When valuing a swap between payment dates, the floating leg value must:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Include accrued interest since the last reset.
Explanation: Why B is right: Between payment dates, the floating leg includes accrued interest since last reset. Why others are wrong: A: That understates value. C: Par only at reset dates. D: Discounting uses appropriate discount curve, not fixed rate.
Question 160
A swaption can be interpreted as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — An option on a swap rate.
Explanation: Why B is right: Swaption = option to enter a swap; effectively an option on the swap rate. Why others are wrong: A: Not directly; though swaps relate to bond portfolios. C: FRA is linear, not optional. D: Cap is a series of rate options, not a swaption.
Question 161
A cap can be replicated as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — A portfolio of long caplets.
Explanation: Why A is right: A cap is a series of caplets, one for each reset period. Why others are wrong: B: Short caplets would be a short cap. C: Floorlets replicate a floor. D: FRA covers only one period.
Question 162
A floor can be replicated as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Long floorlets.
Explanation: Why C is right: Floor = series of floorlets. Why others are wrong: A, B: Those relate to caps. D: Short floorlets = short floor.
Question 163
Cap value from two caplets Two caplets have PVs of 30,000 and 45,000. What is the cap value?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 75,000
Explanation: Cap = sum of caplets = 75,000.
Question 164
Floor value from three floorlets Floorlet PVs: 20,000; 15,000; 10,000. Floor value?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 45,000
Explanation: Sum = 45,000.
Question 165
Multi‑period cap valuation Caplet PVs: 40,000; 35,000; 30,000; 25,000. Cap value?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 130,000
Explanation: Sum = 130,000.
Question 166
Multi‑period floor valuation Floorlet PVs: 10,000; 15,000; 20,000; 25,000.
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 70,000
Explanation: Sum = 70,000.
Question 167
Swaption annuity factor calculation Payments annually for 4 years. Discount factors: 0.95, 0.91, 0.87, 0.84. What is the annuity factor?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 3.57
Explanation: Sum = 0.95 + 0.91 + 0.87 + 0.84 = 3.57.
Question 168
What is the PV of the year‑2 caplet?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 752,000
Explanation: [ 800{,}000 \times 0.94 = 752{,}000 ]
Question 169
Which swaption protects against rising rates?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Payer
Explanation: Payer swaption = right to pay fixed, which benefits when rates rise.
Question 170
A total return swap allows one party to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Exchange interest rate risk for equity risk without owning the reference asset
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: In a total return swap, the total return receiver gets all the economics (price appreciation and income) of the reference asset without actually owning it, in exchange for paying a financing rate. ✘ Why others are wrong: B describes a forward. C is a stock lending feature. D describes a currency hedge.
Question 171
A credit default swap (CDS) can be used by a bank to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Transfer the credit risk of a loan off its balance sheet by buying protection
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: By buying CDS protection on a borrower, the bank transfers the default risk to the CDS seller. The bank keeps the loan on its books but hedges the credit exposure. ✘ Why others are wrong: A ignores risk management. C is not achievable via CDS. D is an interest rate swap function.
Question 172
An investor uses a total return swap to gain exposure to a high-yield bond index without buying the bonds. The investor is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The total return receiver (receiving the bond returns, paying a floating rate)
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: As total return receiver, the investor receives all economic returns (income + price change) of the bond index in exchange for paying a floating financing rate, gaining exposure without ownership. ✘ Why others are wrong: A pays out the returns (they are short the exposure). C is an intermediary. D is the debt issuer.
Question 173
A credit default swap (CDS) spread represents:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The annual premium (in basis points) paid by the protection buyer to the protection seller
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: The CDS spread (running spread) is the annual fee paid for default protection, quoted in basis points. A wider spread indicates higher perceived credit risk. ✘ Why others are wrong: A describes a credit spread on bonds. C is the loss given default. D is a trading spread.
Question 174
In a CDS, a credit event typically includes:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Bankruptcy, failure to pay, or restructuring of the reference entity
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: ISDA-standard credit events include: bankruptcy, failure to pay, obligation default, obligation acceleration, repudiation/moratorium, and restructuring. ✘ Why others are wrong: A (rating downgrade) is not a credit event for CDS settlement. C is a market signal, not a credit event. D is a corporate event.
Question 175
A protection buyer in a CDS benefits when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — The reference entity defaults or its credit quality deteriorates
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: The protection buyer gains value when default risk increases (spreads widen) or a credit event occurs. Upon default, the seller pays the loss, making the buyer whole. ✘ Why others are wrong: A and B hurt the protection buyer (position mark-to-market declines). D is unrelated.
Question 176
Physical settlement of a CDS means:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The protection buyer delivers the defaulted bond to the protection seller in exchange for par value
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: In physical settlement, the buyer delivers the defaulted (or eligible) bonds to the seller and receives par value in cash. The seller absorbs the loss. ✘ Why others are wrong: A describes cash settlement. C describes regular premium payments. D is not how CDS works.
Question 177
Cash settlement of a CDS is based on:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Par minus the recovery value determined by an auction or market price
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: Cash settlement pays: notional × (1 − recovery rate). Recovery is determined by a dealer auction or market price of the defaulted bond. ✘ Why others are wrong: A ignores recovery. C is only a portion. D confuses spread payments with settlement.
Question 178
The credit triangle relationship is: CDS spread ≈ default probability × (1 − recovery rate). If the annual default probability is 2% and recovery is 40%, the CDS spread is approximately:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 1.2%
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: CDS spread ≈ 2% × (1 − 0.40) = 2% × 0.60 = 1.2% (120 bps). ✘ Why others are wrong: A ignores recovery. C miscalculates. D reverses the formula.
Question 179
'Wrong-way risk' in a CDS refers to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The correlation between the default of the reference entity and the default of the protection seller
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: Wrong-way risk occurs when the protection seller is most likely to default at the same time as the reference entity (they are correlated). This weakens the hedge precisely when it is needed most. ✘ Why others are wrong: A is market risk. C is a timing issue. D is basis risk.
Question 180
The ISDA Master Agreement in the context of CDS is important because it:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Provides standardized legal terms and netting provisions for OTC derivative transactions
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: The ISDA Master Agreement establishes the legal framework for OTC derivatives, including CDS. It defines credit events, netting, closeout provisions, and standard terms. ✘ Why others are wrong: A is set by market supply and demand. C is the clearinghouse role. D was introduced post-2008 but is not the ISDA MA's role.
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