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Free Questions › CFA › Derivatives
Free CFA Derivatives Practice Questions & Answers
500 exam-style Derivatives questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
100% free · No login to startQuestion 301
Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the Black-Scholes-Merton model?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — The underlying asset pays dividends at a constant rate
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: The basic BSM model (for non-dividend-paying stocks) does not assume dividends. Dividend adjustments are added separately (e.g., Merton's dividend extension). The model does assume no dividends in its simplest form. ✘ Why others are wrong: A, B, and D are standard BSM assumptions.
Question 302
In the context of options, 'in-the-money' probability relates most closely to which Greek?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Delta
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: Delta is numerically close to the risk-neutral probability of expiring ITM (N(d1) ≈ probability, though strictly delta = N(d1) and ITM probability = N(d2) for calls). ✘ Why others are wrong: B (gamma) measures delta change. C (theta) measures time decay. D (vega) measures volatility sensitivity. Option Strategies
Question 303
A bull call spread is created by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Buying a call at a low strike and selling a call at a higher strike
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: A bull call spread profits from a moderate rise in the underlying. Buying the lower-strike call gets you the upside; selling the higher-strike call reduces the net premium but caps the gain. ✘ Why others are wrong: A is a bear call spread. C is a straddle. D is a strangle (short).
Question 304
A bear put spread involves:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Buying a high-strike put and selling a lower-strike put
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: A bear put spread profits from a price decline. Buy the higher-strike put for downside protection; sell the lower-strike put to reduce cost, limiting the gain. ✘ Why others are wrong: B is a short straddle/naked put. C is a long straddle. D is a protective put on a short position.
Question 305
A long strangle is a strategy that:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Involves buying an OTM call and an OTM put on the same underlying
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: A long strangle uses OTM options (cheaper than ATM), requiring a larger move to profit. It benefits from high volatility but costs less than a straddle. ✘ Why others are wrong: A describes strategies that benefit from low volatility. C is a short strangle. D confuses straddle (ATM) with strangle (OTM).
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Question 306
A calendar (time) spread involves:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Buying a near-term option and selling a longer-dated option (or vice versa) with the same strike
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: A calendar spread exploits differences in time decay between options of the same strike but different expirations. The near-term option decays faster. ✘ Why others are wrong: A is a vertical (price) spread. C is an inter-market strategy. D is a diagonal or combination strategy.
Question 307
An investor buys a put with K = $50 and sells a put with K = $40 (same expiration). This strategy is a:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Bear put spread
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: Buying the higher-strike put + selling the lower-strike put = bear put spread. It profits from a moderate decline in the underlying. ✘ Why others are wrong: A (bull put spread) is the reverse. C (long strangle) uses an OTM call too. D is shorting stock + buying a put.
Question 308
Which option strategy has unlimited profit potential and limited maximum loss?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Long call
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: A long call has maximum loss equal to the premium paid and theoretically unlimited gain as the underlying price can rise without limit. ✘ Why others are wrong: A has limited gain and unlimited loss. B has unlimited loss. D has capped upside.
Question 309
An investor who sells a cash-secured put wants the underlying to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Remain at or above the strike, so the put expires worthless and they keep the premium
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: Selling a put generates premium income. The best outcome is the put expiring worthless (S_T ≥ K). The investor is willing to buy the stock at K, with the premium as a 'discount'. ✘ Why others are wrong: A is acceptable but not the ideal. C is a long call goal. D increases the value of the option against the seller.
Question 310
A risk reversal consists of:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Buying an OTM call and selling an OTM put (or vice versa)
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: A risk reversal involves opposite-direction OTM options. Buying an OTM call and selling an OTM put creates a synthetic long position with a premium offset. ✘ Why others are wrong: B is a long straddle. C is a short straddle. D combines wrong strikes.
Question 311
The maximum loss on a short strangle is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Potentially unlimited on the call side
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: A short strangle (selling OTM call + OTM put) has unlimited loss on the upside (uncapped call exposure) and significant loss if the stock drops to zero on the put side. ✘ Why others are wrong: A is the maximum gain. B is a spread's maximum loss. D is wrong; large moves create large losses.
Question 312
Selling a covered call is sometimes described as 'selling upside' because:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — The investor receives a payment in exchange for giving away gains above the strike
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: By selling the call, the investor receives the premium but surrenders any appreciation above the strike price. The upside is 'sold' in exchange for current income. ✘ Why others are wrong: B reverses who makes the payment. C is wrong; the strategy benefits from stable/rising prices. D describes a short put, not a covered call.
Question 313
A put-call parity violation would allow an arbitrageur to earn a riskless profit by:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Creating a synthetic position (e.g., synthetic stock via long call + short put + PV(K)) and comparing to the actual stock price
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: Put-call parity: C − P = S − PV(K). If violated, the synthetic stock (long call + short put + invest PV(K)) and actual stock differ in price. Buying the cheap side and selling the expensive side is riskless arbitrage. ✘ Why others are wrong: A creates a position but is not self-financing arbitrage. C is a short straddle strategy. D is exercise, not parity arbitrage.
Question 314
A stock repair strategy using options is typically employed when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — An investor wants to recover losses on a stock that has fallen without investing more capital
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: A repair strategy (e.g., buy a call spread financed by selling two higher-strike calls) lowers the breakeven price, helping a distressed position recover faster without additional capital. ✘ Why others are wrong: A describes profit-taking. C describes writing calls on shorts. D describes algorithmic selling.
Question 315
An investor writes a put at K = $100 and receives a premium of $5. The maximum loss is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — $95
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: Worst case: the stock falls to zero. Put writer must buy shares at $100; net cost = $100 − $5 premium = $95 per share. ✘ Why others are wrong: A is the maximum gain. C ignores the offsetting premium. D is the risk for a naked call, not a put.
Question 316
A diagonal spread combines:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Two options with different strikes and different expirations
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: A diagonal spread uses options at different strikes (vertical) AND different expirations (horizontal/calendar), combining features of both types of spreads. ✘ Why others are wrong: A is a calendar/horizontal spread. C is a straddle. D is an inter-market spread.
Question 317
Which strategy is most appropriate for an investor who is moderately bullish but wants to reduce the cost of buying calls?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Bull call spread
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: A bull call spread (buy low-strike call, sell high-strike call) reduces the net premium versus buying a plain call. Upside is capped at the higher strike but the position is cheaper. ✘ Why others are wrong: A is a volatility strategy. C is also a bullish strategy but uses puts. D requires stock ownership.
Question 318
The maximum gain on a bull call spread occurs when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — The underlying price is at or above the higher strike at expiration
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: At S_T ≥ K_high, both options are exercised. Net payoff = K_high − K_low − net premium paid. This is the maximum profit. ✘ Why others are wrong: A is the maximum loss zone. C is the lower breakeven. D is incorrect for a spread.
Question 319
Why might an investor prefer an option strategy over a futures contract for hedging?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Options allow participation in favorable price moves while limiting downside
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: Options are asymmetric — the buyer's downside is limited to the premium, while the upside is retained. Futures lock in a price symmetrically, eliminating both upside and downside. ✘ Why others are wrong: A is not always true. C is incorrect. D is false for many options markets.
Question 320
A long condor spread is best described as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A low-volatility, limited profit strategy with defined risk
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: A long condor profits when the underlying stays within a middle range. It has a maximum profit and maximum loss, both capped. It is a limited-risk, income-style strategy for low-volatility environments. ✘ Why others are wrong: A describes long straddle/strangle. C is not an option strategy. D is incorrect structurally.
Question 321
The Gamma of a short option position is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Negative
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: Short option positions have negative gamma. When the underlying moves, delta changes against the short — requiring costly rebalancing (short gamma = hurt by large moves). ✘ Why others are wrong: A is for long options. B is for stock positions. D confuses Greeks.
Question 322
A zero-cost collar eliminates:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Downside risk beyond the put strike while capping gains at the call strike
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: A zero-cost collar uses a long put (floors downside) and short call (caps upside) with no net premium. The investor retains gains between the two strikes and is protected below the put strike. ✘ Why others are wrong: A eliminates both sides, which is a forward. C is not what a collar does. D is wrong; the collar is overlaid on a stock position.
Question 323
A trader who is long gamma benefits from:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Large moves in the underlying in either direction
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: Long gamma positions benefit from large price swings — the delta change creates favorable rebalancing opportunities. Long gamma = long options = short theta. ✘ Why others are wrong: A benefits short gamma. B benefits short gamma. D is unrelated.
Question 324
A corporation with floating-rate debt enters a receive-floating, pay-fixed interest rate swap to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Convert its floating-rate obligation to a fixed-rate obligation
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: By paying fixed and receiving floating in the swap, the floating debt payments are offset, leaving the corporation with a net fixed-rate obligation. ✘ Why others are wrong: A is the opposite. B would require a different position. D addresses credit risk, not interest rate risk.
Question 325
A pension fund with a long-term fixed liability stream can use interest rate derivatives to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Lengthen the duration of its asset portfolio to better match liabilities
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: If the liability duration exceeds asset duration, the fund can use receive-fixed swaps (which increase asset duration) to achieve liability-driven investing objectives. ✘ Why others are wrong: A would worsen the duration mismatch. C and D target different risks.
Question 326
A portfolio manager uses equity index futures to quickly reduce beta from 1.2 to 0.8. The manager should:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Sell equity futures to reduce market exposure
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: To reduce beta, the manager sells index futures. The short futures position offsets some of the portfolio's market sensitivity. ✘ Why others are wrong: A increases beta. C and D do not target equity beta.
Question 327
Synthetic cash is created when a portfolio manager:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Sells equity futures against a long stock portfolio, reducing net equity exposure to near zero
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: By fully shorting index futures against a stock portfolio, the equity exposure is neutralized. The portfolio earns close to the risk-free rate — equivalent to holding cash. ✘ Why others are wrong: A creates real cash but involves transaction costs and taxes. C increases bond exposure. D increases equity exposure.
Question 328
Currency futures are used by an exporter expecting to receive foreign currency in 3 months to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Go short the foreign currency futures to lock in an exchange rate
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: The exporter will receive foreign currency (natural long). To hedge, they sell (short) foreign currency futures, locking in the rate regardless of subsequent currency moves. ✘ Why others are wrong: A adds to already-long exposure. C and D are hedging tools but describe different instruments.
Question 329
Interest rate futures are commonly used by banks to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Hedge the interest rate risk on their loan and deposit portfolios
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: Banks face interest rate risk from mismatches between floating and fixed assets and liabilities. Interest rate futures allow them to hedge this gap risk. ✘ Why others are wrong: A is a lending decision. C and D are capital and retail banking activities.
Question 330
A derivative overlay strategy in asset management means:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Using derivatives on top of an existing portfolio to adjust risk or exposure without changing physical holdings
Explanation: ✔ Why correct: An overlay uses derivatives (futures, options, swaps) to modify duration, beta, currency exposure, etc. quickly and cheaply, without restructuring the underlying portfolio. ✘ Why others are wrong: A and D describe full replacement. C is a fund description.
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