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Free Questions › CFA › Corporate Issuers
Free CFA Corporate Issuers Practice Questions & Answers
900 exam-style Corporate Issuers questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
100% free · No login to startQuestion 211
Cost of equity drops from 12% → 10% FCF = 250 Growth = 2% Value increase?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 500
Explanation: Old value: 𝑉 𝑜 𝑙 𝑑 = 250 0.12 − 0.02 = 250 0.10 = 2,500 New value: 𝑉 𝑛 𝑒 𝑤 = 250 0.10 − 0.02 = 250 0.08 = 3,125 Increase = 3,125 − 2,500 = 625, closest to 500.
Question 212
Environmental liability = 50 per year Discount = 8% PV?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: D — 625
Explanation: Perpetuity: PV = 50 / 0.08 = 625.
Question 213
Margin ↑ from 10% → 11% Revenue = 4,000 Profit improvement?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 50
Explanation: Old profit = 0.10 × 4,000 = 400 New profit = 0.11 × 4,000 = 440 Increase = 40, closest to 50.
Question 214
Local vs Global CAPM A firm operates only in a segmented emerging market. Which model is most appropriate for its cost of equity?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Local CAPM using local index
Explanation: In a segmented market, investors cannot fully diversify globally; local market risk is what’s priced, so local CAPM is more appropriate.
Question 215
Sovereign Ceiling Corporate standalone rating = A. Sovereign rating = BBB. Under a strict sovereign ceiling, the corporate’s effective rating is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: D — BBB
Explanation: Under a sovereign ceiling, a corporate’s rating cannot exceed the sovereign’s; A is capped to BBB.
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Question 216
Build‑Up Model – Private Company Risk‑free = 3%, equity risk premium = 5%, size premium = 3%, company‑specific premium = 2%. Cost of equity?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 13%
Explanation: Cost of equity = 3 + 5 + 3 + 2 = 13%.
Question 217
Marginal Cost of Capital Breakpoint Target capital structure: 60% equity, 40% debt. Retained earnings available = 300. At what total new capital does the marginal cost of capital increase?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 500
Explanation: Equity portion = 0.6 × Total. 300 = 0.6 × Total → Total = 500.
Question 218
APV – Concept Adjusted Present Value (APV) is best described as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — PV of unlevered cash flows plus PV of tax shields
Explanation: APV = value as if all‑equity financed + PV of financing side effects (tax shields, subsidies, etc.).
Question 219
APV – Numerical Unlevered project value = 800. PV of tax shields = 120. PV of issuance costs = –20. APV?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 900
Explanation: APV = 800 + 120 – 20 = 900.
Question 220
Sales‑to‑Capital Ratio Sales = 2,000, invested capital = 800. Sales‑to‑capital ratio?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 2.5
Explanation: 2,000 / 800 = 2.5.
Question 221
Mid‑Year Discounting A project generates 100 per year for 5 years. Discount rate = 10%. Using mid‑year convention, approximate PV?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 395
Explanation: End‑year annuity PV ≈ 100 × (1 – 1/1.1⁵)/0.10 ≈ 379. Mid‑year PV ≈ 379 × 1.048 ≈ 397 → closest ≈ 395.
Question 222
Debt = 500, interest rate = 6%, tax rate = 25%, discount rate for tax shield = 6%. PV of perpetual tax shield?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 125
Explanation: Annual tax shield = 500 × 0.06 × 0.25 = 7.5. PV = 7.5 / 0.06 = 125.
Question 223
D/E If a firm maintains a constant D/E ratio, the appropriate discount rate for tax shields is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: D — WACC
Explanation: With constant leverage, tax shields have similar risk as the firm’s assets → discount at WACC.
Question 224
Earn‑Out – Purpose The primary purpose of an earn‑out in M&A is to:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Bridge valuation gaps under uncertainty
Explanation: Earn‑outs tie part of the price to future performance, helping buyers and sellers agree when future outcomes are uncertain.
Question 225
Deferred Tax Liability from Write‑Up PPE book value = 300, fair value = 420, tax base = 300, tax rate = 25%. Deferred tax liability?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 30
Explanation: Temporary difference = 420 – 300 = 120. DTL = 120 × 0.25 = 30.
Question 226
A firm with excess cash and low growth raises its dividend. Under agency theory, this is best seen as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — A mechanism to reduce free cash flow under management control
Explanation: Higher dividends reduce free cash flow that managers could waste, mitigating agency problems.
Question 227
Double Materiality – ESG Double materiality means:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Both financial materiality and impact materiality are relevant
Explanation: It considers both what affects the firm’s value and what affects stakeholders/environment.
Question 228
Scope 3 Emissions Scope 3 emissions are:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — All other indirect emissions in the value chain
Explanation: Scope 3 covers upstream and downstream emissions not captured in Scope 1 or 2.
Question 229
ESG‑Adjusted Discount Rate Base cost of equity = 11%. Governance risk adds 1.5% ESG premium. New cost of equity?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 12.5%
Explanation: 11% + 1.5% = 12.5%.
Question 230
Annual carbon cost = 20 in perpetuity, discount rate = 8%. PV?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 250
Explanation: Perpetuity PV = 20 / 0.08 = 250.
Question 231
APV is most appropriate when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Leverage is changing significantly over time
Explanation: APV handles changing leverage by valuing tax shields separately; WACC assumes roughly constant leverage.
Question 232
ERP = 5%, local ERP = 8%. Markets are partially integrated. A reasonable ERP is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 6%
Explanation: A blended ERP between 5% and 8% is appropriate; 6% is a conservative midpoint.
Question 233
Levered Value via APV Unlevered firm value = 1,000, PV of tax shields = 150, PV of expected distress costs = 50. Levered value?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 1,100
Explanation: Levered value = 1,000 + 150 – 50 = 1,100.
Question 234
WACC when:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — WACC assumes constant leverage
Explanation: WACC is built on a stable capital structure; APV is more flexible when leverage changes.
Question 235
Sales‑to‑Capital and Growth Sales‑to‑capital = 2.5, reinvestment = 80. Implied revenue growth?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 200
Explanation: Revenue growth ≈ Reinvestment × Sales‑to‑capital = 80 × 2.5 = 200.
Question 236
EVA vs NPV Which is most accurate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Positive NPV implies the PV of EVA is positive
Explanation: NPV = PV of future EVA. If NPV > 0, the present value of EVA is positive, though EVA can be negative in some years.
Question 237
A mature firm with stable earnings cuts its dividend by 40% with no clear investment plan. Under signaling theory, this most likely indicates:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Lower future earnings
Explanation: Large cuts in a mature firm usually signal management expects weaker future earnings.
Question 238
Governance & Credit Spread A firm’s governance score improves, reducing its credit spread from 350 bps to 280 bps. Risk‑free rate = 3%. New cost of debt?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 5.8%
Explanation: Cost of debt = 3% + 2.8% = 5.8%.
Question 239
Bottom‑Up Beta Construction A firm operates in 3 industries with the following unlevered betas and revenue weights: - Industry A: βu = 1.4 (40%) - Industry B: βu = 0.9 (35%) - Industry C: βu = 0.6 (25%) What is the bottom‑up unlevered beta?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 1.02
Explanation: Weighted beta = 1.4×0.40 + 0.9×0.35 + 0.6×0.25 = 0.56 + 0.315 + 0.15 = 1.025 ≈ 1.02
Question 240
Country Risk Premium via Default Spread Country default spread = 2.5% Equity volatility / bond volatility = 1.3 CRP?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 3.25%
Explanation: CRP = 2.5% × 1.3 = 3.25%
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