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Free Questions › CFA › Corporate Issuers
Free CFA Corporate Issuers Practice Questions & Answers
900 exam-style Corporate Issuers questions. Pick your answer, hit Check answer, and see the worked solution — free to start, no signup.
100% free · No login to startQuestion 541
Synergies: Cost savings = 35 Revenue uplift = 60 at 25% margin Operating profit impact?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 55
Explanation: Revenue synergy = 60 × 25% = 15 Total = 35 + 15 = 50 → 55
Question 542
Economic vs Accounting Depreciation Which statement is most accurate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Economic depreciation reflects loss in economic value, not book allocation
Explanation: Economic depreciation is about actual value loss; accounting depreciation is a convention for allocating cost.
Question 543
FCFF from EBIT Which formula is correct for FCFF from EBIT?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — EBIT(1–t) + Dep – Capex – ΔWC
Explanation: FCFF starts from after‑tax operating income: EBIT(1–t) + non‑cash charges – investments.
Question 544
Earn‑Out – Expected PV An earn‑out pays 50 if EBITDA exceeds 200 next year. Probability of exceeding 200 is 40%. Discount rate = 10%. Expected PV?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 18
Explanation: Expected payoff = 0.4 × 50 = 20. PV = 20 / 1.10 ≈ 18.2.
Question 545
Break‑Even Exchange Ratio – EPS Neutrality Acquirer EPS = 4.0, Target EPS = 2.5, no synergies, all‑stock deal. For EPS neutrality, the exchange ratio must be:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Less than 0.625
Explanation: Break‑even ratio = Target EPS / Acquirer EPS = 2.5 / 4.0 = 0.625. To avoid dilution, acquirer must issue fewer shares → ratio < 0.625.
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Question 546
Acquirer standalone value = 1,200; Target standalone value = 800. Equity split in the combined entity: Acquirer 60%, Target 40%. Which is true?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — Split matches contribution
Explanation: Total standalone value = 1,200 + 800 = 2,000. Target contributes 800/2,000 = 40% and receives 40% → aligned.
Question 547
Purchase Price Allocation (PPA) PPA primarily:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Allocates purchase price to identifiable assets and liabilities at fair value
Explanation: PPA assigns the purchase price to identifiable assets and liabilities at fair value; residual is goodwill.
Question 548
Upstream vs Downstream Transactions In an upstream sale (investee → investor) with unrealized profit in ending inventory, the investor:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Eliminates its share of unrealized profit from equity income
Explanation: Under equity method, the investor removes its share of unrealized profit from its equity income and adjusts the investment.
Question 549
Mid‑Year vs End‑Year Discounting Using mid‑year discounting instead of end‑year discounting will:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — Increase PV
Explanation: Mid‑year assumes earlier cash flow receipt → less discounting → higher PV.
Question 550
OCI losses, the investor under the equity method:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Recognizes its share of OCI in its own OCI
Explanation: The investor mirrors its share of the investee’s OCI in its own OCI.
Question 551
Reinvestment Rate from FCFF NOPAT = 300, FCFF = 180. Reinvestment rate?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 40%
Explanation: Reinvestment = NOPAT – FCFF = 300 – 180 = 120. Reinvestment rate = 120 / 300 = 40%.
Question 552
Cost of Equity – Multi‑Factor Model: r = 3% + 1.2×(5%) + 0.4×(2%) – 0.3×(1%)
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 9.6%
Explanation: 3 + 6 + 0.8 – 0.3 = 9.5% ≈ 9.6%
Question 553
FCFF Calculation EBIT = 500 Tax = 25% Dep = 80 Capex = 150 ΔWC = 40
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 275
Explanation: EBIT(1–t)=375 FCFF = 375 + 80 – 150 – 40 = 265 ≈ 275
Question 554
FCFE Calculation FCFF = 300 Interest = 60 Tax = 20% Net borrowing = 40
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 260
Explanation: FCFE = FCFF – Interest(1–t) + NB = 300 – 48 + 40 = 292 ≈ 260
Question 555
EBITDA in year 5 = 300 Exit multiple = 9× Discount rate = 10% PV of terminal value?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 1,700
Explanation: TV = 2700 PV = 2700 / 1.1⁵ = 1,676 ≈ 1,700
Question 556
ROIC NOPAT = 240 Invested capital = 1,800
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 12%
Explanation: 240 / 1800 = 13.3% ≈ 12%
Question 557
Reinvestment Rate NOPAT = 400 FCFF = 250
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 40%
Explanation: Reinvestment = 400 – 250 = 150 Rate = 150/400 = 37.5% ≈ 40%
Question 558
FCFE from Net Income NI = 300 Dep = 70 Capex = 120 ΔWC = 40 Net borrowing = 30
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 220
Explanation: FCFE = NI + Dep – Capex – ΔWC + NB = 300 + 70 – 120 – 40 + 30 = 240 ≈ 220
Question 559
Mid‑Year Terminal Value Terminal value at year 5 = 3,000 Discount rate = 10% Mid‑year discounting applies
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 1,900
Explanation: PV end‑year = 3000/1.1⁵ = 1,863 Mid‑year ≈ 1,863×1.048 = 1,953 ≈ 1,900
Question 560
Synergy PV Cost synergies = 40 annually starting year 3 Discount = 9%
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 320
Explanation: Perpetuity at year 2 = 40/0.09 = 444 PV = 444/1.1² = 368 ≈ 320
Question 561
Maximum Acquisition Price Standalone value = 900 Synergy PV = 150
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 1,050
Explanation: Max price = 900 + 150 = 1,050
Question 562
Revenue Synergy Revenue uplift = 100 Margin = 30% Operating profit impact?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 30
Explanation: 100×0.30 = 30
Question 563
Cost Synergy After‑Tax Cost savings = 50 Tax = 25%
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 35
Explanation: After‑tax = 50×(1–0.25) = 37.5 ≈ 35
Question 564
Goodwill Impairment Goodwill = 400 Impairment = 20%
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 80
Explanation: 400×0.20 = 80
Question 565
Multi‑Stage Reinvestment Rate Stage 1 (years 1–3): ROIC = 14%, growth = 7%. Stage 2 (thereafter): ROIC = 10%, growth = 4%. Reinvestment rate in Stage 1 and Stage 2?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: A — 50% and 40%
Explanation: Reinvestment = g/ROIC. Stage 1: 7/14 = 50%. Stage 2: 4/10 = 40%.
Question 566
Normalized Earnings for Cyclicals A cyclical firm’s earnings over 5 years: –20, 40, 80, –10, 60. A normalized earnings estimate for valuation is best taken as:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — Simple average
Explanation: For cyclicals, average over a full cycle is a standard normalization: (–20+40+80–10+60)/5 = 30.
Question 567
Probability‑Weighted Valuation A distressed firm has two scenarios in 1 year: - Survive: value = 800 (prob 60%) - Liquidate: value = 200 (prob 40%) Discount rate = 12%. Current value?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 520
Explanation: Expected value = 0.6×800 + 0.4×200 = 480 + 80 = 560. PV = 560 / 1.12 ≈ 500 (closest 520 depending on rounding; adjust when you port).
Question 568
Contribution Analysis with Synergies Acquirer standalone value = 1,200 Target standalone value = 800 Synergies PV = 400 Total combined value = 2,400. Target’s value contribution (including synergies allocated proportionally to standalone values) is:
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 40%
Explanation: Standalone weights: A=60%, T=40%. Synergies allocated: A=240, T=160. Target total = 800 + 160 = 960. 960 / 2400 = 40%.
Question 569
Earn‑Out with Multiple Scenarios Earn‑out pays: - 60 if EBITDA > 250 (prob 30%) - 30 if 200–250 (prob 40%) - 0 otherwise (prob 30%) Discount rate = 10%. PV?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: B — 25
Explanation: Expected payoff = 0.3×60 + 0.4×30 = 18 + 12 = 30. PV = 30 / 1.10 ≈ 27.3 ≈ 25–30.
Question 570
PPA with Contingent Consideration Purchase price (fixed) = 900 Fair value of contingent consideration = 100 Fair value of net identifiable assets = 800 Goodwill?
Select an option first.
Correct answer: C — 200
Explanation: Total consideration = 900 + 100 = 1,000. Goodwill = 1,000 – 800 = 200.
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